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Pathological Anatomy Practice Tests with Answers: 50 Questions for Exam Preparation

50 pathological anatomy test questions from the WhiteCoat Pro course bank: correct answer and short explanation below each question. Solve online in the simulator or browse the list below — questions are grouped by syllabus sections.

Questions on page50 with answers
Course sections10
Questions in the full bank10,386
Test duration≈ 30 min
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Morphology of Metabolic Disorders — Dystrophies

6 questions
1

What is the underlying cause of hereditary dystrophies?

  1. AImpaired energy supply (substance transport)
  2. BAcquired enzymopathies
  3. CGenetic enzyme defect (enzymopathy)
Show answer
Answer: C) Genetic enzyme defect (enzymopathy)

Hereditary dystrophies (thesaurismoses) develop due to mutations in genes encoding enzymes, leading to their deficiency and the accumulation of uncleaved metabolites within cells.

2

At autopsy in a patient with nephrotic syndrome, it is necessary to differentiate between renal fatty dystrophy and amyloidosis. Which macroscopic sign is most characteristic of amyloidosis (with nephrotic syndrome)?

  1. AKidneys are dense, with a lardaceous sheen on cut surface
  2. BKidneys are enlarged, flabby, with yellow speckling on the surface
  3. CKidneys are shrunken, surface is granular, color is greyish-yellow, cortex is thinned
Show answer
Answer: A) Kidneys are dense, with a lardaceous sheen on cut surface

In amyloidosis, the kidneys become firm, enlarged in volume, and acquire a characteristic lardaceous or waxy sheen on cut surface due to the deposition of amyloid along the basement membranes and in the stroma.

3

Which organs are the main targets in Wilson's disease?

  1. AKidneys and cerebral cortex
  2. BSpleen and cerebellum
  3. CLiver and adrenal cortex
  4. DLiver and basal ganglia of the brain
Show answer
Answer: D) Liver and basal ganglia of the brain

Wilson's disease (hepatolenticular degeneration) is characterized by a genetically determined copper metabolism disorder with its toxic accumulation predominantly in the liver tissue and basal ganglia of the brain.

4

Which substance accounts for 30–50% of fatty liver disease cases?

  1. AEthanol
  2. BCholesterol
  3. CTriglycerides
Show answer
Answer: A) Ethanol

Ethanol is the leading exogenous etiological factor of fatty liver dystrophy, impairing fatty acid oxidation and stimulating excessive triglyceride synthesis in hepatocytes.

5

Destruction of which cell components during severe hypoxia and shock can lead to hyperkalemia?

  1. ABreakdown of lipids and nucleic acids
  2. BBreakdown of glycogen, proteins, and cell membranes
  3. CBreakdown of collagen and elastin
Show answer
Answer: B) Breakdown of glycogen, proteins, and cell membranes

Potassium is the primary intracellular ion, therefore the destruction of cell membranes and the breakdown of intracellular macromolecules lead to its massive release into the bloodstream.

6

What is the macroscopic appearance of organs in mucoid swelling?

  1. AOrgans are enlarged, flabby, variegated in appearance
  2. BOrgans are shrunken, dense, with areas of necrosis
  3. COrgans are virtually unchanged
Show answer
Answer: C) Organs are virtually unchanged

Mucoid swelling is the initial and reversible stage of connective tissue disorganization, in which structural changes are detectable only at the microscopic level. Macroscopically, the external appearance and consistency of organs do not change during this stage.

Rheumatic Diseases

6 questions
7

What is the putative mechanism underlying autoimmunization in idiopathic inflammatory myopathies?

  1. AGenetic defect in muscle protein synthesis
  2. BDirect toxic damage to muscle cells by chemicals
  3. CAntigenic mimicry between infectious agents and autoantigens
Show answer
Answer: C) Antigenic mimicry between infectious agents and autoantigens

It is believed that viral or bacterial antigens share structural similarity with muscle tissue proteins, leading to a cross-reaction of the immune system and damage to the body's own cells.

8

Autopsy of a patient with systemic sclerosis revealed a "scleroderma heart". What morphological substrate underlies the formation of scleroderma heart disease?

  1. ASclerosis of the parietal and valvular endocardium, and chordae tendineae
  2. BSmall- and large-focal cardiosclerosis
  3. CProductive coronary arteritis
Show answer
Answer: A) Sclerosis of the parietal and valvular endocardium, and chordae tendineae

The development of acquired heart defects in systemic sclerosis is caused by fibrosis and sclerosis of the valve cusps, parietal endocardium, and chordae tendineae.

9

Which cells predominate in the inflammatory infiltrate in polymyositis?

  1. AB-lymphocytes and CD4+ T-lymphocytes
  2. BCytotoxic CD8+ T-lymphocytes
  3. CNeutrophils and macrophages
Show answer
Answer: B) Cytotoxic CD8+ T-lymphocytes

The pathogenesis of polymyositis is associated with a cellular immune response in which cytotoxic CD8+ T-lymphocytes infiltrate the endomysium and directly damage muscle fibers.

10

Which changes complete the process in the chordae tendineae and fibrous rings of the atrioventricular orifices in diffuse endocarditis?

  1. AMucoid swelling and lymphohistiocytic infiltration
  2. BFibrinoid necrosis and thrombosis
  3. CSclerosis and shrinkage
Show answer
Answer: C) Sclerosis and shrinkage

The outcome of any inflammatory and disorganizing process in the connective tissue of the valvular apparatus and chordae in rheumatic endocarditis is the proliferation of fibrous tissue with sclerosis, thickening, and shrinkage of structures, leading to the development of a heart defect.

11

What develops in the pathogenetic chain of mitral stenosis following progressive left atrial dilation and pulmonary venous congestion?

  1. ALeft ventricular hypertrophy with its myogenic dilation
  2. BRemodeling of the pulmonary parenchyma and vessels with the development of brown induration of the lungs
  3. CConcentric right atrial hypertrophy
Show answer
Answer: B) Remodeling of the pulmonary parenchyma and vessels with the development of brown induration of the lungs

Chronic venous congestion in the lesser circulation leads to erythrocyte diapedesis, hemosiderin accumulation in macrophages, and connective tissue proliferation, which macroscopically presents as brown induration of the lungs.

12

At autopsy of a patient with systemic vasculitis, lesions of medium- and small-sized arteries with necrosis of their walls were revealed. Glomerulonephritis is absent; large arteries, veins, and venules are not affected. Which form of the disease corresponds to this morphological picture?

  1. AVasculitis in Sjögren's syndrome
  2. BMicroscopic polyarteritis (polyangiitis)
  3. CClassic polyarteritis nodosa
Show answer
Answer: C) Classic polyarteritis nodosa

Classic polyarteritis nodosa is characterized by necrotizing inflammation of medium and small arteries without involvement of arterioles, capillaries, and venules, which rules out the development of glomerulonephritis.

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Diseases of the Kidneys and Urinary Tract

6 questions
13

What outcome can complete the scarring of focal changes in IgA nephropathy?

  1. ADiffuse sclerosis
  2. BCrescentic glomerulonephritis
  3. CFocal sclerosis
Show answer
Answer: C) Focal sclerosis

Healing of focal inflammatory lesions in the renal glomeruli predictably leads to the development of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.

14

A kidney biopsy was performed in a patient with hematuria (erythrocyte casts) and proteinuria. Electron microscopy revealed irregular areas of thickening and thinning of the glomerular basement membrane with pronounced splitting and lamination of the lamina densa. What morphological substrate underlies these changes in Alport syndrome?

  1. ADeposition of immune complexes in the mesangium
  2. BImpaired synthesis of the glomerular basement membrane
  3. CFocal segmental glomerulosclerosis with capillary collapse
  4. DDiffuse thickening of the GBM due to overexpression of type IV collagen
Show answer
Answer: B) Impaired synthesis of the glomerular basement membrane

Alport syndrome is caused by a genetic defect in the alpha chains of type IV collagen, which leads to impaired normal synthesis and assembly of the glomerular basement membrane with its subsequent splitting.

15

What cellular process is observed in the mesangium during the progression of diffuse glomerulosclerosis?

  1. APronounced proliferation of endothelial cells
  2. BInfiltration by neutrophils and macrophages
  3. CModerate proliferation of mesangial cells followed by their entrapment ("burial")
  4. DApoptosis of mesangial cells with karyorrhexis
Show answer
Answer: C) Moderate proliferation of mesangial cells followed by their entrapment ("burial")

In diffuse glomerulosclerosis (e.g., diabetic nephropathy), there is excessive production of extracellular matrix. Mesangial cells first proliferate moderately and are then compressed and entrapped within the accumulating hyaline masses.

16

In a renal biopsy for IgA nephropathy (Berger's disease), immunofluorescence microscopy reveals characteristic staining in the glomeruli. Where are the immune deposits confirming this diagnosis localized?

  1. AIn the glomerular mesangium
  2. BIn the renal interstitium
  3. CIn the subendothelial spaces of the basement membrane
  4. DIn the subepithelial spaces of the basement membrane
Show answer
Answer: A) In the glomerular mesangium

A pathognomonic morphological sign of Berger's disease is the deposition of immune complexes containing IgA precisely within the mesangial matrix of the renal glomeruli.

17

Where in the glomeruli are amyloid deposits localized in renal amyloidosis?

  1. AExclusively in the subepithelial space
  2. BOnly in the mesangium and interstitium
  3. COnly in blood vessel walls and the tubular basement membrane
  4. DIn the mesangium, beneath the capillary endothelium, and in the subepithelial space
Show answer
Answer: D) In the mesangium, beneath the capillary endothelium, and in the subepithelial space

In renal amyloidosis, amyloid fibrils are initially deposited in the glomerular mesangium, and as the disease progresses, they spread beneath the endothelium and epithelium of the capillary loops.

18

Impairment of the renal concentrating ability in interstitial nephritis clinically manifests as:

  1. AHematuria
  2. BOliguria
  3. CProteinuria
  4. DPolyuria
Show answer
Answer: D) Polyuria

Decreased tubular concentrating function leads to the inability to properly reabsorb water, resulting in the excretion of a large volume of unconcentrated urine.

Endocrine System Disorders

5 questions
19

Which of the following causes of mortality in diffuse toxic goiter is particularly characteristic of the postoperative period?

  1. AAcute adrenal insufficiency
  2. BCardiovascular failure
  3. CCachexia
  4. DSecondary infection
Show answer
Answer: A) Acute adrenal insufficiency

In prolonged thyrotoxicosis, the adrenal cortex is in a state of functional exhaustion, so surgical stress can trigger acute adrenal insufficiency.

20

What is the typical outcome of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

  1. ARapidly onset coma, typically resulting in death
  2. BProgression to chronic hypoadrenalism with gradual functional recovery
  3. CComplete recovery following antibiotic therapy
Show answer
Answer: A) Rapidly onset coma, typically resulting in death

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a massive bilateral adrenal hemorrhage leading to acute adrenal insufficiency, shock, and rapid death.

21

Which macroscopic feature distinguishes adrenocortical carcinoma from an adenoma?

  1. ALarger size and absence of a capsule
  2. BBrown color and presence of a thin capsule
  3. CSmall size and dense capsule
Show answer
Answer: A) Larger size and absence of a capsule

Malignant adrenocortical tumors typically reach large sizes, are characterized by invasive growth, and lack a well-defined connective tissue capsule. Benign adenomas, conversely, are encapsulated and small in size.

22

A patient with diabetes mellitus shows diabetic nodular glomerulosclerosis on a renal biopsy. Which vascular alteration in the glomeruli best corresponds to this condition?

  1. ACapillary neoangiogenesis in the retina
  2. BHyalinosis of both afferent and efferent glomerular arterioles
  3. CMicroaneurysms in retinal capillaries and venules
  4. DSymmetric peripheral nerve sensory impairment
Show answer
Answer: B) Hyalinosis of both afferent and efferent glomerular arterioles

Pathognomonic for diabetic microangiopathy in the kidneys is the simultaneous involvement (hyalinosis) of both the afferent and efferent glomerular arterioles.

23

What is the microscopic appearance of early changes in subacute granulomatous de Quervain's thyroiditis?

  1. AMacrophagic granulomas with multinucleated giant cells
  2. BFollicular atrophy and stromal sclerosis
  3. CFocal neutrophilic infiltrates with microabscess formation
  4. DLymphoplasmacytic focal subcapsular infiltrates
Show answer
Answer: C) Focal neutrophilic infiltrates with microabscess formation

In the initial (acute) phase of de Quervain's thyroiditis, follicular destruction occurs with the release of colloid, triggering an acute inflammatory response with neutrophil infiltration and microabscess formation. Later, this appearance is replaced by classical granulomatous inflammation with multinucleated giant cells.

Diseases of the Hematopoietic System

5 questions
24

By what mechanism do leukemic cells spread to organs and tissues?

  1. AImplantation spread along serous membranes
  2. BLymphogenic spread via lymphatic vessels
  3. CHematogenous dissemination (metastasis)
Show answer
Answer: C) Hematogenous dissemination (metastasis)

Leukemic cells primarily proliferate in the bone marrow, from where they are distributed throughout the body via the bloodstream, forming specific infiltrates in organs.

25

The development of secondary myelodysplastic syndromes is associated with the influence of which factors?

  1. AViral infections, autoimmune reactions, genetic mutations
  2. BNutritional deficiencies, chronic inflammatory diseases
  3. CMedications, ionizing radiation, toxic agents
Show answer
Answer: C) Medications, ionizing radiation, toxic agents

Secondary (therapy-related) myelodysplastic syndromes most commonly arise as a late complication of prior chemotherapy (alkylating agents, topoisomerase inhibitors) or radiation therapy for other oncological diseases.

26

Which of the following conditions is a cause of reactive thrombocytosis?

  1. AMyeloid leukemia
  2. BMyeloproliferative disorder
  3. CSplenectomy
Show answer
Answer: C) Splenectomy

The spleen normally sequesters and destroys a significant proportion of platelets; therefore, its removal (splenectomy) leads to a secondary (reactive) increase in their count in peripheral blood. Myeloproliferative disorders cause primary (clonal) thrombocytosis.

27

What is the term for the appearance of red blood cells of varying shapes in the blood?

  1. АMicrocytosis
  2. БAnisochromia
  3. ВPoikilocytosis
  4. ГAnisocytosis
Show answer
Answer: В) Poikilocytosis

Poikilocytosis refers to the presence of abnormally shaped and varied red blood cells in the blood, which is characteristic of many types of anemia.

28

Transformation into which type of tumor is possible for mycosis fungoides in late stages?

  1. АFollicular lymphoma
  2. БLarge-cell lymphoma
  3. ВBurkitt lymphoma
Show answer
Answer: Б) Large-cell lymphoma

Mycosis fungoides is a cutaneous T-cell lymphoma that, upon progression, can undergo large-cell transformation to form an aggressive large-cell T-cell lymphoma.

Skin Diseases

5 questions
29

What causes the formation of retraction clefts between tumor nests and surrounding tissues in basal cell carcinoma?

  1. АMarked necrosis of tumor cells in the center of the nests
  2. БDeficiency of hemidesmosomes leading to tissue tearing during histological processing
  3. ВExcessive mucin accumulation in the tumor stroma
Show answer
Answer: Б) Deficiency of hemidesmosomes leading to tissue tearing during histological processing

Retraction clefts characteristic of basal cell carcinoma occur during histological processing due to weakened intercellular junctions (hemidesmosomes) between the tumor cells and the stroma.

30

Microscopy of a hidradenoma revealed a predominance of rounded cells with distinct borders and clear cytoplasm rich in glycogen. Which tumor variant should be diagnosed in this case?

  1. АVariant with a predominance of squamous epithelial cells forming "pearls"
  2. БVariant with apocrine differentiation
  3. ВClear cell hidradenoma
Show answer
Answer: В) Clear cell hidradenoma

The presence of cells with clear cytoplasm accumulating glycogen in the tumor is a characteristic histological feature of the clear cell variant of hidradenoma (eccrine acrospiroma).

31

At autopsy of a patient with melanoma, histological preparations revealed areas of fibrosis and macrophage-lymphocytic infiltrates replacing the tumor tissue. What process does this morphological picture reflect?

  1. АPartial or complete tumor regression
  2. БTransition to the vertical growth phase
  3. ВFormation of satellite lesions around the primary focus
Show answer
Answer: А) Partial or complete tumor regression

The replacement of melanoma tissue with connective tissue showing pronounced lymphomacrophage infiltration and accumulation of melanophages is a morphological manifestation of spontaneous tumor regression driven by the immune system.

32

What is the primary cause of ichthyosis vulgaris?

  1. АMutations in the gene responsible for filaggrin production
  2. БDeletions in the short arm of the X chromosome (Xp22.32 locus)
  3. ВAbsence of enzymes — steroid sulfatase and arylsulfatase
  4. ГIncreased number of small vessels in the dermis
Show answer
Answer: А) Mutations in the gene responsible for filaggrin production

Ichthyosis vulgaris develops due to mutations in the FLG gene, leading to filaggrin deficiency, impaired keratinization, and decreased epidermal barrier function.

33

What mandatory macroscopic feature is present in all cases of dysplastic nevus?

  1. АUniform dark brown pigmentation
  2. БAmelanotic (pigment-free) surface
  3. ВPapular relief with distinct borders
  4. ГMacular component with indistinct borders
Show answer
Answer: Г) Macular component with indistinct borders

Dysplastic nevus is characterized by asymmetry and irregular growth, making the presence of a flat (macular) component with uneven, blurred edges typical.

Pediatric Infections

5 questions
34

Late cardiovascular complications of diphtheria are caused by damage to which nerve and structures?

  1. АPhrenic nerve and intercostal muscles
  2. БFacial nerve and cervical sympathetic ganglia
  3. ВVagus nerve (n. vagus) and cardiac intramural ganglia
Show answer
Answer: В) Vagus nerve (n. vagus) and cardiac intramural ganglia

Diphtheria exotoxin causes demyelination of nerve fibers, including the vagus nerve, leading to severe autonomic dysfunction and fatal arrhythmias during convalescence.

35

Which route of infection is characteristic of acquired cytomegalovirus infection and ruled out for congenital infection?

  1. АSexual
  2. БTransplacental
  3. ВBlood transfusion
  4. ГTransplantation
Show answer
Answer: А) Sexual

Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is transmitted strictly from mother to fetus, whereas the sexual route of transmission occurs exclusively in the acquired form of the disease in adults.

36

In a patient who had diphtheria, signs of heart failure appeared 2–2.5 months after the onset of the disease. Damage to which structures underlies this late complication?

  1. АOf the phrenic nerve and respiratory muscles
  2. БOf the adrenal cortex with the development of their insufficiency
  3. ВOf the renal glomeruli with the development of necrotizing nephrosis
  4. ГOf the vagus nerve and cardiac intramural ganglia
Show answer
Answer: Г) Of the vagus nerve and cardiac intramural ganglia

Late cardiac complications of diphtheria are associated with toxic polyneuropathy affecting the vagus nerve and cardiac intramural ganglia. This leads to severe rhythm disorders and heart failure.

37

Which pathognomonic sign is detected in the lymph nodes in measles?

  1. АPresence of Warthin–Finkeldey giant multinucleated cells
  2. БFollicular hyperplasia with germinal center formation
  3. ВPerivascular infiltration by lymphocytes and histiocytes
  4. ГDiapedetic hemorrhages with hemosiderin formation
Show answer
Answer: А) Presence of Warthin–Finkeldey giant multinucleated cells

The measles virus causes fusion of infected lymphoid cells, leading to the formation of specific Warthin–Finkeldey giant multinucleated cells in the lymph nodes and other organs of the immune system.

38

Which complication of scarlet fever is classified as a late autoimmune complication (peaking in the 2nd and 3rd weeks)?

  1. АRetropharyngeal abscess
  2. БOtitis media
  3. ВEndomyocarditis
  4. ГSepsis
Show answer
Answer: В) Endomyocarditis

Late complications of scarlet fever are caused by a cross-reactive autoimmune response to group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus antigens, leading to involvement of the heart (endomyocarditis), kidneys (glomerulonephritis), and joints.

Diseases of the Digestive System

5 questions
39

A 32-year-old man with a long history of anal fissures developed a painful infiltrate in the perianal region. Upon incision, pus was obtained. Which pathogen is the most likely cause of this abscess?

  1. АActinomyces israelii
  2. БChlamydia trachomatis (lymphogranuloma venereum)
  3. ВEscherichia coli
  4. ГMycobacterium tuberculosis
Show answer
Answer: В) Escherichia coli

Perianal abscesses are most commonly caused by non-specific intestinal microflora penetrating through the damaged mucous membrane, with Escherichia coli and anaerobes playing the leading role.

40

What change in the gastric antrum develops in autoimmune chronic gastritis?

  1. АReactive hyperplasia of G-cells
  2. БPronounced lymphocytic infiltration of the antral mucosa
  3. ВAtrophy of the antral mucosa
Show answer
Answer: А) Reactive hyperplasia of G-cells

Autoimmune gastritis affects the body and fundus of the stomach, leading to the destruction of parietal cells and achlorhydria. The reduction in acidity stimulates G-cells of the intact antral region via a feedback mechanism, causing their reactive hyperplasia and hypergastrinemia.

41

Which immunoglobulin phenotype of plasma cells in the lamina propria of the mucosa is considered normal?

  1. АIgM phenotype
  2. БIgA phenotype
  3. ВIgG phenotype
Show answer
Answer: Б) IgA phenotype

Normally, plasma cells in the lamina propria of mucous membranes (especially the gastrointestinal tract) predominantly synthesize secretory immunoglobulin A, which provides local immunity.

42

High-grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia is equivalent to which concept regarding stratified squamous epithelium?

  1. АCarcinoma in situ
  2. БLow-grade adenoma
  3. ВLow-grade intraepithelial neoplasia
Show answer
Answer: А) Carcinoma in situ

Severe dysplasia and carcinoma in situ (intraepithelial carcinoma) are morphologically and clinically grouped under the concept of high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia (High-Grade IN).

43

Impaired maturation of which zone of an ulcer underlies the chronic progression of the process?

  1. АZone of granulation tissue
  2. БZone of fibrous scar
  3. ВZone of exudation
  4. ГZone of fibrinoid necrosis
Show answer
Answer: А) Zone of granulation tissue

Chronification of an ulcer defect is caused by continuous damage and impaired microcirculation, which prevents the normal maturation of granulation tissue into a full-fledged scar. As a result, alteration processes prevail over regeneration.

Compensatory and Adaptive Processes

4 questions
44

What happens to the functional and morphological heterogeneity of an organ during decompensation under conditions of hyperfunction?

  1. АThe organ loses its functional and morphological heterogeneity — the rest and recovery phase disappears
  2. БThe number of simultaneously functioning structures sharply decreases, the rest phase increases
  3. ВHeterogeneity increases due to an increase in the number of structures in a state of functional pause
Show answer
Answer: А) The organ loses its functional and morphological heterogeneity — the rest and recovery phase disappears

When compensatory mechanisms are depleted, all structural elements of the organ are forced to function continuously. This leads to the disappearance of reserve structures that are in the rest phase and the loss of normal functional and morphological heterogeneity.

45

What leads to the development of pressure atrophy?

  1. ADestruction of motor neurons
  2. BNarrowing of the lumen of arteries supplying the organ
  3. CImpaired tissue innervation
  4. DCompression of tissue by fluid or a tumor
Show answer
Answer: D) Compression of tissue by fluid or a tumor

When a tumor, aneurysm, or fluid collection exerts pressure on tissue, blood vessels are compressed, leading to local ischemia, hypoxia, and subsequent reduction in cell volume.

46

At the organ level, unlike the cellular level, the development of decompensation is additionally influenced by:

  1. AExclusively intracellular processes of dystrophy and necrobiosis
  2. BThe state of general regulatory mechanisms of organ function within the integrated organism
  3. CDestruction of intracellular structures and necrobiotic changes
Show answer
Answer: B) The state of general regulatory mechanisms of organ function within the integrated organism

Decompensation at the organ level depends not only on the depletion of intracellular reserves, but also on impaired systemic neurohumoral and hemodynamic regulation across the entire organism.

47

What is the cause of dysfunctional atrophy (atrophy from disuse)?

  1. AInadequate blood supply.
  2. BAction of damaging factors.
  3. CAbsence of organ or tissue function.
  4. DPressure.
Show answer
Answer: C) Absence of organ or tissue function.

Dysfunctional atrophy develops as a result of a decrease or complete cessation of the functional load on an organ, for example, during limb immobilization or bed rest. Reduced functional activity leads to a decrease in the volume and number of tissue cells.

Introduction to Nosology

3 questions
48

What change in tuberculosis epidemiology occurred under the influence of vaccination and specific therapy?

  1. AThe incidence rate became evenly distributed across all age groups
  2. BThe peak incidence shifted from early childhood to adolescence
  3. CThe peak incidence shifted from adolescence to early childhood
Show answer
Answer: B) The peak incidence shifted from early childhood to adolescence

Mass BCG vaccination provided effective protection for young children, which shifted the greatest susceptibility to primary infection and the peak incidence to adolescence and youth, when post-vaccination immunity wanes.

49

A patient with cavitary tuberculosis underwent lobectomy; tuberculosis was cured, but a scar, emphysema, chest deformity, and cardiac displacement developed. Which variant of a favorable outcome corresponds to this situation?

  1. AComplete favorable outcome (complete recovery with restoration of homeostasis and return to normal life and work)
  2. BUnfavorable outcome (death)
  3. CIncomplete favorable outcome (irreversible changes in organs with the development of compensatory and adaptive processes)
Show answer
Answer: C) Incomplete favorable outcome (irreversible changes in organs with the development of compensatory and adaptive processes)

The condition is regarded as incomplete recovery because the pathogen is eliminated and the underlying disease is resolved, but persistent structural defects remain that require compensation.

50

At autopsy, an 80-year-old patient was found to have lobar pneumonia and death occurred. What disease should be indicated in the diagnosis as the underlying condition?

  1. ASenile pulmonary emphysema
  2. BLobar pneumonia
  3. CDiffuse small-focal cardiosclerosis
  4. DDiffuse pneumosclerosis
Show answer
Answer: B) Lobar pneumonia

Lobar pneumonia is an independent nosological entity that, on its own or through its complications, led to the patient's death, and therefore is designated as the underlying disease.

Frequently asked questions

Where do these pathological anatomy questions come from?

From the Pathological Anatomy question bank of WhiteCoat Pro — the same one students use to prepare for classes. The total bank contains 10,386 questions; this selection includes 50 questions across 10 sections with answers and brief explanations.

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The questions are compiled according to the medical school curriculum and cover the main sections of the subject. We do not guarantee a match with the exam questions of any specific university: use the test to identify gaps, and review weak topics using a reference book or within the course.

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