Chest diagnostic imaging
7 questionsA patient with truncus arteriosus (type I) is scheduled for postoperative follow-up. Which complications are the priority for MRI assessment?
- AHomograft dysfunction and truncal valve regurgitation
- BPulmonary artery aneurysm and left atrial thrombosis
- CAortic valve stenosis and LV hypertrophy
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Surgical correction of truncus arteriosus typically involves placing a conduit (homograft) between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery, as well as truncal valve repair. Over time, the homograft undergoes degeneration with stenosis or regurgitation, and neo-aortic (truncal) valve regurgitation often progresses, necessitating regular MRI monitoring.
Echocardiography in a patient reveals a hyperechoic rounded mass attached to the basal interventricular septum. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- AFibroelastoma
- BAngiosarcoma
- CRhabdomyoma
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Rhabdomyoma is the most common primary cardiac tumor in children, which characteristically appears on echocardiography as a hyperechoic nodular mass within the ventricular myocardium or interventricular septum. In contrast, papillary fibroelastomas typically affect the valve apparatus, while angiosarcomas are more frequently localized in the right atrium.
Ground-glass opacification on HRCT is morphologically caused by:
- APartial filling of air spaces, interstitial thickening, or a combination thereof
- BDestruction of interalveolar septa with air space formation
- CComplete filling of alveoli with exudate displacing air
- DLobular hyperinflation due to air trapping
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Ground-glass opacity on high-resolution computed tomography reflects partial filling of alveoli with content or thickening of interalveolar septa while maintaining visibility of internal vascular structures.
An elderly Caucasian woman with no underlying lung disease presents on HRCT with cylindrical bronchiectasis, multiple centrilobular 1–3 mm "tree-in-bud" opacities predominantly affecting the middle lobe and lingular segments. Which syndrome describes this clinical presentation?
- ASwyer–James syndrome
- BRaynaud's syndrome
- CLady Windermere syndrome
- DHamman–Rich syndrome
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The described CT findings with isolated involvement of the middle lobe and lingular segments are characteristic of mycobacterial infection (most commonly Mycobacterium avium complex), which in elderly women without immunodeficiency is referred to as Lady Windermere syndrome.
A patient is delivered to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision with severe polytrauma. The condition is unstable, and the patient is non-transportable. Which diagnostic imaging methods are the priority at this stage?
- ABedside chest X-ray and ultrasound
- BBarium contrast study
- CMSCT with coronal and sagittal reconstructions
- DMRI with multiplanar reconstructions
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In cases of unstable hemodynamics and patient non-transportability according to the advanced trauma life support (ATLS) protocol, only bedside examinations are performed: chest and pelvic radiography, as well as FAST ultrasound for rapid detection of life-threatening injuries.
A 49-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus is referred for evaluation. Asymptomatic. SPECT-sestamibi reveals a reversible perfusion defect in the lateral wall of the LV, with an ischemic burden of 19%. What is the further management strategy for the patient based on the presented data?
- ACoronary angiography
- BExercise ECG
- CObservation without additional interventions
- DMedication therapy only
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A transient myocardial ischemic burden of more than 10% on SPECT is a high-risk criterion for cardiovascular events, which is a direct indication for invasive coronary angiography.
What is the predominant localization of abnormalities in panlobular emphysema caused by α-1-antitrypsin deficiency?
- APerihilar regions of both lungs
- BMiddle lobe and lingular segments
- CUpper lung lobes
- DLower lung lobes
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Unlike centrilobular emphysema in smokers, which predominantly affects the upper lung zones, panlobular emphysema due to alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency classically localizes to the basal (lower) zones of the lungs.
Abdominal Diagnostic Radiology
7 questionsWhat is a common radiological finding in tuberculosis, syphilis, and histoplasmosis of the stomach?
- AFlattening of mucosal folds with a tubular stomach appearance
- BUlcerations, fold thickening, and mucosal nodularity
- CMucosal atrophy and complete absence of areae gastricae
- DGlandular hypertrophy with pronounced hypoproteinemia
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Specific granulomatous infections of the stomach radiologically manifest as signs of severe inflammation simulating malignancy. They are characterized by thickening and rigidity of the folds, nodularity of the mucosal surface, and ulceration.
What complication may occur during a water-soluble contrast enema in patients with strictures due to bowel overdistension?
- APerforation
- BIntestinal intussusception
- CAnaphylactic shock
- DAcute kidney injury
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Administering contrast media under pressure in the presence of a stricture leads to overdistension of the bowel wall proximal to the narrowing. This creates a high risk of mechanical rupture (perforation) of the thinned or inflamed intestinal wall.
Which CT phase is recommended for evaluating the gallbladder wall in suspected gangrenous cholecystitis?
- APortal venous phase
- BArterial phase
- CDelayed phase (at 10 minutes)
- DNon-contrast phase
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The portal venous phase is optimal for assessing contrast enhancement of the gallbladder wall and detecting areas of ischemia or necrosis in acute cholecystitis.
Which method is considered the "gold standard" for diagnosing esophageal motility disorders?
- AComputed tomography
- BHigh-resolution manometry
- CBarium swallow / fluoroscopy
- DEndoscopic examination
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High-resolution manometry allows for a detailed assessment of esophageal peristalsis and sphincter function, making it the primary method for classifying motility disorders (e.g., according to the Chicago Classification).
Which ultrasound sign allows vasa previa to be differentiated from a normally inserted umbilical cord loop?
- AVisualization of blood flow on color Doppler mapping
- BPresence of hypoechoic structures over the internal os
- CLack of positional change of the vessels upon maternal repositioning
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In vasa previa, the vessels are fixed within the fetal membranes over the internal os; therefore, their location remains unchanged when the pregnant woman changes position, unlike mobile loops of the umbilical cord.
Which diagnostic imaging method is preferred for assessing extracapsular extension of a prostatic abscess due to its high soft-tissue resolution?
- ATransrectal ultrasonography (TRUS)
- BMagnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- CComputed tomography (CT)
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Magnetic resonance imaging provides the highest soft-tissue contrast among all imaging modalities. This allows for the most accurate visualization of the prostatic capsule and assessment of the extension of the purulent-inflammatory process into the surrounding periprostatic fat.
A patient with severe pancreatitis undergoes contrast-enhanced CT, which demonstrates contrast extravasation within a pseudocyst and gas bubbles. Which treatment method is most appropriate to stop the bleeding in this case?
- APercutaneous catheter drainage
- BSelective angiography with coil embolization
- CConservative antibiotic therapy
- DFine-needle aspiration biopsy
Show answer
Contrast extravasation indicates ongoing arterial bleeding (often from a pseudoaneurysm associated with pancreatitis), for which endovascular embolization is a life-saving and minimally invasive method of choice.
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Musculoskeletal system
6 questionsA patient was admitted after falling from a height onto their heels. Radiography revealed a calcaneal fracture in which the fracture line extends anteriorly from the posterior cortical surface of the apophysis, involving the posterior articular facet of the subtalar joint. What type of fracture is this?
- AExtra-articular type
- BVertical oblique type
- CTongue type
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According to the Essex-Lopresti classification, if the secondary fracture line of the calcaneus runs horizontally backward and exits through the posterior tuberosity, a tongue-shaped fragment is formed. Such a fracture is frequently accompanied by upward displacement of the fragment due to the pull of the Achilles tendon.
Which method is used to differentiate between grade 2 and grade 3 acromioclavicular joint injuries when standard radiography results are inconclusive?
- AStress radiography
- BSoft tissue ultrasound
- В) Contrast-enhanced MRI
- Г) Bone window CT
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Stress radiography (with traction) allows visualization of instability and the degree of clavicle displacement in case of acromioclavicular joint ligament rupture, which is crucial for differentiating grade II and III injuries.
A patient was admitted with a wrist injury. The lateral radiograph shows a distal radius fracture with palmar displacement of the distal fragment. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- А) Smith's fracture
- Б) Barton's fracture
- В) Colles' fracture
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Smith's fracture is an intra-articular or extra-articular fracture of the distal radial metaphysis with palmar displacement of the fragment (in contrast to Colles' fracture, which has dorsal displacement).
Which radiological sign of hand involvement is most characteristic of hemochromatosis?
- А) Hook-like osteophytes on the metacarpal heads
- Б) Marginal erosions of the interphalangeal joints
- В) Laminated periosteal pattern
- Г) Marginal osteophytes of the distal interphalangeal joints
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Hemochromatosis arthropathy typically involves the metacarpophalangeal joints (especially the second and third) with the formation of characteristic hook-like osteophytes on the radial side of the metacarpal heads.
In which case is indium-111-labeled leukocyte scintigraphy most justified?
- А) For the diagnosis of oncogenic osteomalacia
- Б) For primary screening of osteomyelitis in children
- В) For assessing the degree of articular cartilage degeneration
- Г) For detecting infection around joint endoprostheses
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Labeled leukocyte scintigraphy has high specificity for inflammatory processes and is the standard radionuclide imaging method for differentiating aseptic loosening from periprosthetic joint infection.
What causes fluid-fluid levels on MRI in an aneurysmal bone cyst?
- А) Presence of cystic degeneration
- Б) Sedimentation of blood elements
- В) Fibrous transformation of the walls
- Г) Fatty involution of the contents
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Fluid levels in an aneurysmal bone cyst are formed due to the layering (sedimentation) of blood cells and serum within cavities containing uncoagulated blood.
Spine
6 questionsWhich sign on an anteroposterior spine radiograph indicates compensated scoliosis?
- А) The plumb line from the C7 center passes strictly through the center of the sacrum
- Б) The plumb line from the C7 center passes more than 5 cm lateral to the center of the sacrum
- В) The plumb line from the C7 center passes less than 2 cm lateral to the center of the sacrum
- Г) The plumb line from the C7 center passes through the center of L5
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Global coronal balance of the spine is assessed using a plumb line dropped from the center of the C7 vertebral body. If this line passes within less than 2 cm from the central vertical line of the sacrum, the scoliotic deformity is considered compensated.
Which diagnostic imaging method most accurately assesses the risk of vertebral fractures in multiple myeloma?
- А) MSCT
- Б) Radiography
- InMRI
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MSCT has the best spatial resolution for assessing bone mineral density and the trabecular structure of vertebral bodies, which is critical for determining the risk of pathological fractures in multiple myeloma.
A 3-year-old child is found to have an intramedullary spinal cord tumor. Based on epidemiological data, which tumor is the second most common in this age group?
- А) Ganglioglioma
- Б) Low-grade astrocytoma
- В) Hemangioblastoma
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Among intramedullary spinal cord tumors in children, astrocytoma is the most common, while ganglioglioma ranks second in frequency.
For what purpose is CT myelography used when cerebrospinal fluid leak is suspected?
- А) For precise localization of the leak site and visualization of the fistula tract
- Б) For differentiating abscess from hematoma
- В) For assessing the pituitary gland status
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Administration of a radiopaque contrast agent into the subarachnoid space followed by CT allows direct visualization of contrast extravasation beyond the dura mater and precise determination of the fistula location.
Which diagnostic imaging method is the method of choice when evaluating patients with suspected metastatic spinal disease?
- А) Bone scintigraphy
- Б) Computed tomography (CT)
- AStandard radiography
- BMagnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
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Magnetic resonance imaging provides the highest soft-tissue contrast, allowing the detection of bone marrow metastases before the destruction of the cortical layer, as well as accurate assessment of spinal cord and root compression.
Which classification system is used to determine treatment tactics for thoracolumbar spine injuries?
- ABI-RADS system
- BLI-RADS system
- CTLICS scale
- DAOSpine classification for the cervical spine
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The TLICS (Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score) scale is specifically designed to assess the severity of thoracolumbar junction injuries and helps determine indications for conservative or surgical treatment.
Neuroimaging
6 questionsIn which clinical situations with a brain tumor does CT retain its diagnostic importance?
- AFor assessing the metabolic properties of the tumor
- BFor performing volumetric tumor measurements
- CFor detailed soft-tissue contrast assessment
- DIn acute conditions and when the integrity of bone structures needs to be evaluated
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Although MRI is the gold standard in neuro-oncology, CT remains the method of choice in urgent situations to quickly rule out hemorrhage or herniation syndrome. CT also surpasses MRI in visualizing calcifications within the tumor structure and assessing the destruction of adjacent cranial bones.
How does an osteoma of the paranasal sinuses appear on CT?
- AA lesion with lobulated contours
- BA well-circumscribed dense bone lesion
- CA hyperintense lesion with wall destruction
- DA lesion with a "cerebriform" pattern
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An osteoma of the paranasal sinuses is a benign bone neoplasm visualized on CT as a homogeneous, sharply demarcated lesion with high density corresponding to compact bone.
Which diagnostic imaging method is optimal for detecting calcifications in the structure of a craniopharyngioma?
- AT2-weighted MRI
- BNon-contrast computed tomography
- CContrast-enhanced T1-weighted MRI
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Computed tomography has the highest sensitivity to dense structures, making it the gold standard for visualizing calcifications characteristic of craniopharyngiomas.
Which nerve provides motor innervation to most of the muscles of the tongue (except the palatoglossus)?
- AHypoglossal nerve (XII cranial nerve)
- BFacial nerve (VII cranial nerve)
- CGlossopharyngeal nerve (IX cranial nerve)
- DMandibular nerve (V3)
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The hypoglossal nerve is purely motor and innervates all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue, except for the palatoglossus, which receives innervation from the vagus nerve.
A 37-year-old female presents with an acute right oculomotor nerve palsy involving the pupil. CT angiography revealed a posterior communicating artery (Pcomm) aneurysm. Which imaging method allows the most detailed assessment of the size and position of the aneurysm neck for endovascular treatment planning?
- AFLAIR MRI
- BStandard non-contrast CT
- C3D rotational angiography (3D RA)
- DSWI MRI
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Three-dimensional rotational angiography (3D-DSA) has the highest spatial resolution and allows rotation of the acquired image in any plane, which is critical for accurate assessment of the aneurysm neck morphology prior to endovascular embolization.
Which condition on maximum intensity projection (MIP) CTA can have an identical appearance to vasculitis?
- AVenous sinus hypoplasia
- BCerebral venous thrombosis (CVT)
- CReversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome (RCVS)
- DSpontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage
Show answer
Reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome (RCVS) manifests as multifocal alternating narrowings and dilations of arteries ("string-of-beads" appearance), which is visually indistinguishable from true vasculitis on angiograms.
Diagnostic imaging in oncology
6 questionsWhat is the advantage of MRI over CT when performing dynamic contrast-enhanced imaging?
- AAbsence of ionizing radiation
- BLower cost of the study
- CSimpler quantitative data analysis technique
- DHigher reproducibility of quantitative data
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Dynamic imaging requires repeated scanning of the same area to assess contrast uptake kinetics. Using MRI avoids the high radiation dose inherent in multiphase CT examinations.
A dynamic contrast-enhanced CT was performed in a patient with suspected glioblastoma multiforme. On which map is the blood-brain barrier disruption visualized most contrastingly?
- APermeability surface area product map
- BBlood volume fraction map
- CRegional cerebral blood flow map
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Perfusion CT allows calculation of various pharmacokinetic parameters; the permeability-surface area product (PS) map is most sensitive to severe blood-brain barrier disruption characteristic of glioblastoma.
Which radiological sign is characteristic of lytic lesions in Langerhans cell histiocytosis?
- AMultilayered periosteal reaction
- BSymmetrical cortical sclerosis
- CEndosteal scalloping
- DEpiphyseal sparing
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Destructive lesions in Langerhans cell histiocytosis often cause irregular thinning of the inner layer of the bone cortex, which appears on radiographs as endosteal scalloping.
Which anatomical structures are used as landmarks in planar image analysis to detect patient displacement during head and neck cancer treatment?
- ASternocleidomastoid muscles and thyroid cartilage
- BCervical vertebral bodies and hyoid bone
- CMandible and spinous processes
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On 2D radiographs (portal images), soft tissues are not visualized, so reliable bony landmarks such as the mandible and cervical spinous processes are used to monitor patient setup and detect head rotation.
Which radiological sign is characteristic of fat necrosis of the breast?
- AGranular calcifications
- BPleomorphic microcalcifications
- CEggshell calcifications
- DPopcorn calcifications
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Fat necrosis of the breast is characterized by the formation of oleogranulomas (fat cysts), the walls of which eventually calcify, forming typical eggshell calcifications with a radiolucent center.
What does the Ktrans parameter represent in the DCE-MRI pharmacokinetic model?
- AVolume of the extravascular extracellular space per unit volume of tissue
- BElimination rate constant of the contrast agent from the body
- CAmplitude of the normalized dynamic curve
- DVolume transfer constant between blood plasma and the extravascular extracellular space
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The Ktrans parameter reflects capillary permeability and tissue perfusion, indicating the rate of transfer of the contrast agent from blood plasma into the extravascular extracellular space.
Pediatric Diagnostic Radiology
6 questionsWhich of the following conditions in neuroblastoma is classified as stage 4s according to the INSS system?
- AChild under 1 year of age with localized tumor and metastases to the liver, skin, or bone marrow
- BChild under 18 months of age with metastases limited to skin, liver, and bone marrow
- CLocalized tumor with complete gross resection and negative lymph nodes
- DTumor infiltrating across the midline with regional lymph node involvement
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Stage 4S according to the INSS classification is defined specifically for infants in the first year of life. It is characterized by a localized primary tumor with metastasis strictly limited to the skin, liver, and/or bone marrow, and often has a favorable prognosis with the possibility of spontaneous regression.
What imaging feature distinguishes choroid plexus carcinoma from papilloma?
- AIndistinct border between the tumor and brain parenchyma
- BLack of contrast enhancement
- CLocalization exclusively in the third ventricle
- DPronounced cystic degeneration
Show answer
Malignant choroid plexus carcinoma infiltrates surrounding brain tissue, unlike benign papilloma, which has clear, well-demarcated contours.
What normal morphological feature of the corpus callosum is noted on sagittal T1-weighted images in children?
- AThe splenium and genu have the same thickness
- BThe splenium is slightly larger compared to the genu
- CThe genu is significantly thicker than the splenium
- DThe body of the corpus callosum is thinned compared to the poles
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During normal brain development and myelination, the splenium of the corpus callosum becomes its thickest part, exceeding the genu and body in size.
In a 2-month-old infant, initial ultrasound revealed benign subarachnoid space expansion. A follow-up ultrasound one month later revealed a left-sided subdural fluid collection with a membrane. CT revealed no acute hemorrhage. What is the most likely course of this process after 2 months in the absence of clinical symptoms?
- AIncrease in the volume of the subdural collection
- BComplete resolution of the subdural collection
- CDevelopment of pseudocystic brain rupture
- DFormation of an organized subdural hematoma
Show answer
Benign enlargement of the subarachnoid space in infants can be complicated by asymptomatic subdural fluid collections, which resolve spontaneously and completely without a trace in the vast majority of cases within a few months.
Which position of Klein's line on an anteroposterior radiograph is considered normal?
- AThe line intersects the lateral 1/6 of the epiphysis
- BThe line passes lateral to the femoral head epiphysis
- CThe line passes through the center of the epiphysis
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Klein's line is drawn along the superior border of the femoral neck and should normally intersect the outer part (approximately 1/6) of the femoral head epiphysis; if the line misses the epiphysis entirely, it indicates slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE).
An 8-year-old child is being evaluated for focal absence seizures. MRI reveals a well-circumscribed cortical lesion in the right inferior temporal lobe causing cortical expansion. There is no contrast enhancement. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- AIschemic stroke in the MCA territory
- BDysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor
- CMitochondrial cytopathy (MELAS)
- DMoyamoya disease
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Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor (DNET) typically presents in children with pharmacoresistant epilepsy, is localized in the cortex (most commonly the temporal lobe), causes cortical expansion (bubbling), and usually does not enhance with contrast.
Interventional radiology
6 questionsA patient with neurofibromatosis is found to have renal artery stenosis. Which treatment method is preferred for young patients with this pathology, given the resistance to percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)?
- ARenal denervation
- BSurgical vascular reconstruction
- CIsolated balloon angioplasty
- DBalloon-expandable stent placement
Show answer
In neurofibromatosis, renal artery stenoses are caused by neurofibromatous tissue or vascular wall dysplasia, making them resistant to balloon angioplasty (PTA); therefore, open or endovascular surgical reconstruction becomes the method of choice.
Which complication is associated with inadvertent intra-arterial injection of corticosteroid suspensions during lumbar transforaminal epidural steroid injections?
- ATransient headache
- BAseptic meningitis
- CParaplegia
- DEpidural abscess
Show answer
Inadvertent injection of a corticosteroid suspension into a radicular artery (such as the artery of Adamkiewicz) leads to its embolization and spinal cord infarction, clinically manifested as paraplegia.
A patient is scheduled for nephrostomy tube placement. How many days prior to the procedure should clopidogrel be discontinued?
- A48 hours
- B24 hours
- C5 days
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Percutaneous nephrostomy is classified as a procedure with a high bleeding risk; therefore, to restore platelet aggregation, clopidogrel must be discontinued 5 days before the procedure.
A follow-up CT angiography was performed on a patient after EVAR for an abdominal aortic aneurysm. An increase in the aneurysm sac size was detected. There are no signs of type I and type III endoleaks, but contrast filling of the sac from a lumbar artery is visualized. What is the further management?
- AWatchful waiting without intervention
- BProximal cuff placement
- CEmbolization of the source of the leak
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The described imaging findings correspond to a type II endoleak (retrograde blood flow from aortic branches). Since there is an increase in the aneurysm sac size, surgical treatment is indicated—transarterial or direct puncture embolization of the feeding vessel.
A patient with an intra-abdominal abscess is being prepared for percutaneous drainage. Which of the following conditions requires choosing a surgical treatment method instead of percutaneous drainage?
- ASymptomatic postoperative seroma
- BNeed for diagnostic fluid aspiration
- CPresence of peritonitis
- DPresence of gas within the abscess itself
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Diffuse peritonitis is an absolute indication for emergency surgery (laparotomy with peritoneal lavage), where percutaneous drainage is ineffective and contraindicated.
What is the characteristic anatomical relationship of the internal jugular vein in the lower part of the neck?
- ALocated strictly posterior to the carotid artery
- BLocated within the carotid sheath medially
- CCurves anterior to the carotid artery and lies laterally
- DLocated medial to the carotid artery
Show answer
In the lower third of the neck, the internal jugular vein is typically located anterolaterally (anterior and lateral) relative to the common carotid artery. This topographic relationship is a key landmark for central venous catheterization.
Frequently asked questions
Where do these diagnostic radiology questions come from?
From the question bank of the "Diagnostic Radiology" course by WhiteCoat Pro — the same one students use to prepare for classes. The bank contains a total of 11,260 questions; here are 50 across 8 sections with answers and brief explanations.
Are these tests suitable for colloquiums and exams?
The questions are compiled according to the medical school curriculum and cover the main sections of the subject. We do not guarantee a match with the exam questions of any specific university: use the test to identify gaps, and review weak topics using a reference book or within the course.
How to solve: look at the answers immediately or take the test first?
First, go through the practice mode — choosing an option without hints better reinforces the material. The answers and explanations under each question on the page will be useful for reviewing mistakes.
Where to get the rest of the questions?
The complete diagnostic radiology question bank with error analyses, study guides for each topic, and an AI tutor are available in the "Diagnostic Radiology" course.