General issues in traumatology and orthopedics
17 questionsWhat surgical approach is preferred in acute trauma in patients with frailty syndrome according to clinical guidelines?
- ADelayed surgery only after full recovery of physiological reserves
- BImmediate definitive orthopedic treatment upon admission
- CConservative treatment exclusively without any surgical stabilization
- DDamage Control Orthopedics approach with initial simple stabilization
Show answer
In patients with frailty syndrome, the Damage Control Orthopedics (DCO) approach is used to minimize surgical stress in the acute period to reduce the risk of decompensation of comorbid conditions.
Which method is the definitive treatment for acute compartment syndrome according to clinical guidelines?
- ARemoval of the plaster cast and observation
- BEmergency fasciotomy
- CTightly bandaging the limb
- DConservative therapy with analgesics
Show answer
Acute compartment syndrome is accompanied by a critical increase in subfascial pressure, requiring emergency surgical decompression (fasciotomy) to prevent irreversible ischemic necrosis of muscles and nerves.
After a fasciotomy for acute compartment syndrome, the wound was left open. What is the recommended timeframe for definitive closure of the skin defect after surgery?
- AIn 1–2 days
- BIn 2–3 days
- CIn 14–21 days
- DIn 7–10 days
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Definitive wound closure (secondary suturing or skin grafting) after fasciotomy is usually performed in 7–10 days, when muscle edema has completely subsided and the risk of compartment syndrome recurrence is reduced.
A patient with lower leg compartment syndrome developed paresthesias in the first web space of the foot and developed foot drop. Which fascial compartment is affected?
- ALateral fascial compartment
- BSuperficial posterior fascial compartment
- CDeep posterior fascial compartment
- DAnterior fascial compartment
Show answer
The deep peroneal nerve runs within the anterior fascial compartment of the leg, which innervates the skin of the first web space, and contains the foot extensor muscles, whose ischemia leads to foot drop.
A physician is evaluating a patient using the phenotypic frailty model. The criterion "low energy expenditure" in men is defined as an expenditure of less than 383 kcal/week. What threshold is used for women?
- ALess than 200 kcal/week
- BLess than 383 kcal/week
- CLess than 300 kcal/week
- DLess than 270 kcal/week
Show answer
In the phenotypic model of frailty (Fried criteria), low physical activity is assessed using the Minnesota Leisure Time Physical Activity Questionnaire and is less than 383 kcal per week for men and less than 270 kcal per week for women.
A patient with lower leg compartment syndrome developed paresthesias in the first web space of the foot. Damage to which anatomical structure causes this symptom?
- ASural nerve
- BSuperficial fibular nerve
- CDeep fibular nerve
- DTibial nerve
Show answer
The deep fibular (peroneal) nerve runs in the anterior fascial compartment of the leg, which is frequently affected in compartment syndrome. The sensory branch of this nerve innervates the skin exclusively in the area of the first web space of the foot.
What criterion of bone tissue viability is used during limited bone resection when radically removing an inflammation focus?
- AAppearance of "bloody dew" droplets
- BChange in bone color to white
- CAppearance of bone marrow in the resection zone
- DAbsence of purulent discharge
Show answer
During surgical debridement of an osteomyelitic focus, bone resection is performed until capillary bleeding from Haversian canals appears—the "bloody dew" sign. This sign indicates good blood supply and viability of the remaining bone tissue.
What methods are recommended for correcting sarcopenia and weight loss in elderly patients?
- AExercise programs and nutritional support
- БSurgical correction and infusion therapy
- ВDrug therapy with anabolic hormones
- ГPhysical activity restriction and bed rest
Show answer
The mainstay of sarcopenia treatment is resistance training to stimulate muscle growth and adequate protein intake to provide structural building blocks.
Which type of specific immunization for osteomyelitis involves the administration of anti-staphylococcal plasma and immunoglobulin?
- АActive immunization
- БPassive immunization
- ВEmpirical immunization
- ГNonspecific immunization
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The administration of preformed antibodies in the form of plasma or immunoglobulins provides an immediate but temporary immune response, which is the mechanism of passive immunization.
A 38-year-old patient with chronic femoral osteomyelitis was admitted electively in a non-acute phase. Examination revealed a bone cavity following previous sequestrectomy. The femur is surrounded by a well-preserved muscle mass. Which method of bone cavity obliteration is preferred in this case?
- АTemporary limb shortening followed by bilocal osteosynthesis
- БActive drainage without cavity filling
- ВUse of allografts or biocomposite materials
- ГFilling the defect with a pedicled muscle flap from surrounding tissues
Show answer
A pedicled muscle flap has a good blood supply, which helps eliminate residual infection, reliably obliterates the dead space, and stimulates reparative processes in the bone.
What is the role of conservative treatment in osteomyelitis according to clinical guidelines?
- АIt is of auxiliary importance and aims to prepare the patient for surgery
- БIt is the primary method that allows curing osteomyelitis without surgery
- ВIt is used as an alternative to surgery in forms without sinus tracts
- ГIt is used only during remission to prevent exacerbations
Show answer
The mainstay of osteomyelitis treatment is surgical debridement of the purulent focus, whereas conservative therapy plays an auxiliary role in preparing for surgery and in the postoperative period.
What is the permissible limit of acute single-stage limb shortening in total osteomyelitis with bone resection?
- АNo more than 4–5 cm
- БNo more than 7–8 cm
- ВNo more than 10 cm
- GNo more than 2–3 cm
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Simultaneous limb shortening of more than 4–5 cm carries a high risk of major vessel kinking and nerve trunk stretching, which can lead to acute ischemia and neuropathy.
In a case of lateral fascial compartment syndrome of the leg, the surgeon suspected that muscle ischemia was caused by compression of the posterior tibial artery located within this compartment. Which statement contradicts the anatomical data presented in the clinical guidelines?
- AThe posterior tibial artery is located in the lateral compartment
- BThere is no dedicated major artery in the lateral compartment
- CThe fibular artery is located in the posterior compartment and gives off branches to the lateral compartment
- DBlood supply to the lateral compartment is provided by anastomotic branches wrapping around the fibula
Show answer
The posterior tibial artery runs in the deep posterior fascial compartment of the leg, not the lateral one. The lateral compartment lacks its own large major artery and is supplied by perforating branches of the fibular artery.
Which sensory functions must be evaluated in patients with geriatric frailty syndrome?
- AVestibular function and balance
- BVision and hearing
- CTactile sensitivity and proprioception
- DOlfaction and taste
Show answer
Impaired vision and hearing are directly associated with a high risk of falls, social isolation, and progression of cognitive impairment. Therefore, their screening evaluation is part of the mandatory comprehensive geriatric assessment.
According to clinical guidelines, what is the definitive treatment for acute compartment syndrome?
- AEmergency fasciotomy for compartment decompression
- BConservative therapy with serial measurement of compartment pressure
- CEmergency amputation of the affected limb
- DApplication of a tight immobilizing bandage to limit edema
Show answer
Acute compartment syndrome requires emergency surgical intervention to reduce tissue pressure and prevent muscle necrosis. The gold standard and only effective treatment is decompressive fasciotomy.
How long after trauma does acute post-traumatic osteomyelitis develop?
- AIn 3–6 months
- BIn 1–2 days
- CIn 6–8 weeks
- DIn 2–4 weeks
Show answer
In Russian traumatology, it is generally accepted that the clinical and radiological picture of acute post-traumatic osteomyelitis (a purulent-necrotic process directly within the bone) develops on average 2–4 weeks after an open fracture. Earlier on, the inflammation is usually regarded as soft tissue suppuration of the wound.
Which symptom is characteristic of anterior compartment syndrome of the leg due to deep peroneal nerve involvement?
- ALoss of sensation on the sole of the foot
- BParesthesia along the medial surface of the lower leg
- CParesthesia along the lateral surface of the foot
- DParesthesia in the first web space of the foot
Show answer
The deep peroneal nerve runs within the anterior fascial compartment of the leg. Its sensory branch innervates only a small area of skin—the first web space of the foot; therefore, when the nerve is compressed, paresthesia occurs precisely in that area.
Special adult traumatology
17 questionsHow does the radiological diagnostic approach for an impacted femoral neck fracture differ from that of a displaced fracture?
- AFor an impacted fracture, CT or follow-up radiography in 10–14 days is required in doubtful cases, whereas standard radiography is usually sufficient for a displaced fracture
- BFor an impacted fracture, radiography in a single anteroposterior view is sufficient, while MRI is required for a displaced fracture
- CFor a displaced fracture, CT with 3D reconstruction is mandatory, whereas only radiography is performed for an impacted fracture
- DRadiography is not performed for an impacted fracture; the diagnosis is established clinically
Show answer
Impacted femoral neck fractures may not be visualized on initial radiographs; therefore, if clinical symptoms persist, CT, MRI, or follow-up radiography 10–14 days after the injury is indicated.
Which type of stress fracture occurs in pathologically altered bone (e.g., in the setting of osteoporosis) under normal loads?
- AJones fracture
- BFatigue fracture
- CInsufficiency fracture
- DMarch fracture
Show answer
Insufficiency fractures occur when normal physiological loads are applied to bone with reduced mineral density and compromised microarchitecture, such as in osteoporosis.
What is characteristic of a varus femoral neck fracture when assessing limb length?
- ARelative shortening of the leg by 2–3 cm with no absolute shortening
- BAbsolute shortening of the leg by 2–3 cm with no relative shortening
- CEqual length of both limbs
- DLimb lengthening by 2–3 cm
Show answer
In a femoral neck fracture, the anatomical (absolute) length of the femur does not change, as the fracture line passes above the greater trochanter. However, due to upward displacement of the femur along with the pelvis, relative shortening of the limb occurs, measured from the anterior superior iliac spine.
When performing an intrapelvic blockade according to Shkolnikov-Selivanov, which drug and dose are used according to clinical guidelines?
- A150 ml of 2% procaine (novocaine) solution
- B300 ml of 0.25% procaine (novocaine) solution
- C300 ml of 1% lidocaine solution
- D200 ml of 0.5% procaine (novocaine) solution
Show answer
For the Shkolnikov-Selivanov intrapelvic blockade, a large volume of a weak anesthetic is traditionally used—250–300 ml of 0.25% procaine (novocaine) solution per side. This safely creates a massive infiltrate in the loose pelvic connective tissue, blocking the lumbar and sacral plexuses.
A professional runner is diagnosed with a tension-side stress fracture of the femoral neck. Conservative treatment for the prescribed duration proved ineffective. What is the next management strategy according to clinical guidelines?
- ARestrict weight-bearing and monitor dynamically without changing tactics
- BPrescribe bisphosphonates to accelerate consolidation
- CContinue conservative treatment with complete non-weight-bearing
- DOpen reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
Show answer
Femoral neck stress fractures on the superior surface (tension side) carry a high risk of complete displacement and osteonecrosis. If conservative therapy fails or if there is an initially high risk of complications, surgical stabilization (osteosynthesis) is indicated.
Which imaging modality is optimal for detecting occult stress fractures according to clinical guidelines?
- ACT and ultrasound
- BMRI and technetium bone scintigraphy
- CRadiography
- DDEXA scan
Show answer
Magnetic resonance imaging and bone scintigraphy have the highest sensitivity for the early diagnosis of stress fractures. MRI visualizes bone marrow edema long before radiographic signs of cortical disruption appear.
Which clinical sign helps differentiate a displaced femoral neck fracture from an impacted fracture?
- AThe "stuck-on" heel sign is positive in a displaced fracture and negative in an impacted fracture
- BExternal rotation of the thigh is characteristic exclusively of an impacted fracture
- CAxial loading pain of the femur is absent in a displaced fracture
- DGroin pain is present only in a displaced fracture
Show answer
In an impacted femoral neck fracture, bone support is preserved, allowing the patient to actively lift the straight leg. In a displaced fracture, biomechanics are disrupted, making it impossible to lift the straightened leg (positive "stuck-on" heel sign).
Which diagnostic imaging method is used to monitor the healing process of a stress fracture in order to safely clear the athlete to return to training?
- AMRI
- BBone scintigraphy
- ASoft tissue ultrasound
- DRadiography
Show answer
Magnetic resonance imaging has high sensitivity to bone marrow edema and allows precise assessment of the degree of stress fracture consolidation. This makes it possible to objectively determine the readiness of the bone tissue to resume athletic loads.
Which diagnostic imaging method is the method of choice for determining management tactics (surgical vs. conservative treatment) in focal osteochondral lesions of the knee joint?
- AComputed tomography
- BLateral radiography
- CMagnetic resonance imaging
- DAnteroposterior radiography
Show answer
Magnetic resonance imaging allows detailed visualization of the articular cartilage and subchondral bone, as well as assessment of the stability of the osteochondral fragment. It is precisely these data that determine the indications for surgical intervention or conservative therapy.
In a patient with knee pain, radiography has ruled out arthritis, but focal chondral damage is clinically suspected. Which diagnostic imaging method should be performed next?
- AMagnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- BKnee ultrasound
- CComputed tomography (CT)
- DRepeat radiography in additional projections
Show answer
Magnetic resonance imaging has high soft-tissue contrast and is the gold standard for visualizing cartilage tissue and detecting its local defects.
A 38-year-old patient with a focal cartilage defect of the knee joint receives conservative treatment (activity modification, exercise therapy, NSAIDs) for several months without significant effect; symptoms persist and limit function. Which next step corresponds to the clinical guidelines?
- AContinue conservative treatment for another 6 months
- BPrescribe systemic oral glucocorticosteroids
- CLimit to observation without changing tactics
- DRefer for surgical treatment
Show answer
If adequate conservative therapy for symptomatic full-thickness cartilage defects is ineffective within 3–6 months, surgical treatment is indicated (e.g., microfracturing or mosaicplasty).
According to the Pauwels classification, which type of femoral neck fracture is considered most unfavorable regarding the risk of disimpaction and pseudoarthrosis formation?
- AGroup I (angle up to 30° to the horizontal)
- BValgus impacted fracture
- CGroup III (angle 50–90° to the horizontal)
- DGroup II (angle 30–50° to the horizontal)
Show answer
According to the Pauwels classification, the more vertically oriented the femoral neck fracture line is (Type III, angle 50–90°), the higher the shearing forces, which maximizes the risk of nonunion and pseudoarthrosis formation.
What AO/ASIF classification code is assigned to proximal femur fractures (metaepiphysis)?
- A33
- B32
- C21
- D31
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According to the universal AO/ASIF fracture classification, the first digit denotes the bone (3 — femur) and the second denotes its segment (1 — proximal segment).
What is the morphological substrate of the traumatic sacroiliac joint syndrome ("functional blockade") according to clinical guidelines?
- ADiastasis between the pubic bones due to symphysis rupture
- BEntrapment of capsular-ligamentous soft tissue structures between the articular surfaces of the sacroiliac joint
- CFracture of the iliac wing with damage to the articular cartilage
- DComplete rupture of the sacroiliac joint with posterior displacement of the ilium
Show answer
The sacroiliac joint "functional blockade" syndrome is caused by the entrapment of the capsular-ligamentous apparatus between the articular surfaces, which causes pain without disrupting the integrity of the pelvic ring.
What complication may occur during unassisted weight-bearing walking in a patient with an impacted femoral neck fracture?
- APseudoarthrosis formation
- BLower extremity deep vein thrombosis
- CFracture disimpaction
- DAseptic necrosis of the femoral head
Show answer
Axial loading and muscle traction during walking can lead to the loss of initial fragment stability. This causes fracture disimpaction with subsequent displacement and a sharp deterioration in the prognosis for the joint.
Which type of femoral neck fracture based on the neck-shaft angle deformation is typically impacted?
- ATranscervical fracture
- BSubcapital fracture
- CValgus fracture
- DVarus fracture
Show answer
In an abduction injury mechanism, the neck-shaft angle increases, and the central fragment impacts into the spongy bone of the peripheral fragment. Therefore, valgus femoral neck fractures are usually impacted and relatively stable.
What pathoanatomical feature distinguishes Type C pelvic fractures from Type B?
- ARupture of the pubic symphysis with diastasis greater than 2.5 cm
- BUnilateral injury of the sacroiliac complex
- CComplete injury of the anterior and posterior pelvic rings with disruption of the pelvic floor
- DPresence of a compression fracture of the anterior part of the sacrum
Show answer
According to the AO/ASIF classification, type C pelvic fractures are characterized by rotational and vertical instability. This is due to a complete disruption of both the anterior and posterior pelvic rings, including injury to the ligamentous apparatus and pelvic floor.
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Orthopedics
16 questionsWhat is the term for osteoarthritis of the first carpometacarpal joint of the hand?
- AErosive osteoarthritis
- BHeberden's nodes
- CRhizarthrosis
- DBouchard's nodes
Show answer
Rhizarthrosis is deforming osteoarthritis of the first carpometacarpal joint, formed by the base of the first metacarpal bone and the trapezium bone.
X-ray of the femur in a 35-year-old patient reveals a lytic lesion with characteristic crepitation upon palpation. According to S.T. Zatsepin's classification, which group does giant cell tumor (osteoblastoclastoma) belong to?
- ATumors of various connective tissues
- BTumors of undetermined origin
- CTumors of bone tissue
- DTumors of cartilaginous tissue
Show answer
In the classical Russian classification by S.T. Zatsepin, giant cell tumor (osteoblastoclastoma) was traditionally classified under neoplasms of undetermined genesis, as its exact cellular origin remained a subject of debate for a long time.
Which hand joint deformity in rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by a flexion contracture of the proximal interphalangeal joint combined with hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal joint?
- AUlnar deviation ("swan fin")
- BSwan-neck deformity
- CValgus deformity
- DBoutonnière deformity
Show answer
The boutonnière deformity occurs due to rupture or stretching of the central slip of the extensor tendon, leading to flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joint and compensatory hyperextension at the distal one.
Which diseases should be included in the differential diagnosis of Panner disease according to clinical guidelines?
- ASynovial chondromatosis and meniscal injury
- BOsteosarcoma and chondrosarcoma
- CRheumatoid arthritis and gout
- DLegg-Calvé-Perthes disease and Osgood-Schlatter disease
Show answer
Osteochondritis dissecans (Panner disease) most commonly affects the knee joint and is accompanied by the formation of loose bodies that cause joint locking. A similar clinical picture with pain and mechanical obstacles to movement is observed in meniscal injuries and synovial chondromatosis.
In osteochondritis dissecans, differential diagnosis must be performed with joint chondromatosis and meniscal injury. Which clinical sign of the late stage of osteochondritis dissecans can also be observed in meniscal injury, making them difficult to distinguish without instrumental methods?
- ANecrosis of the epiphyseal area
- BPain upon pressure on the femoral condyle
- CChronic synovitis with effusion
- DJoint "locking"
Show answer
In the late stage of osteochondritis dissecans, a loose intra-articular body ("joint mouse") forms, the entrapment of which between the articular surfaces causes sudden restriction of movement—joint locking, similar to that seen in meniscal tears.
A patient with suspected gout underwent a complete blood count, uric acid level determination (which turned out to be normal), and joint radiography. The physician ruled out the diagnosis of gout based on the normal uric acid level. What does not correspond to the principles of gout diagnosis?
- ARadiography of affected joints is not indicated when gout is suspected
- BNormal uric acid levels do not rule out an acute gout attack
- CComplete blood count is not part of the basic evaluation for gout
- DHyperuricemia is a mandatory criterion for establishing a diagnosis of gout
Show answer
During an acute gout attack, blood uric acid levels may drop to normal values due to its active deposition in tissues and enhanced renal excretion driven by inflammation. Therefore, normouricemia during an exacerbation does not rule out the diagnosis.
A patient with Paget's disease was found to have a single lesion in the tibia during a routine examination. The physician ordered only targeted radiography of this bone and did not perform further evaluation. What does not comply with clinical guidelines?
- AFailure to perform whole-skeleton radiography or bone scintigraphy to search for multiple lesions
- BChoosing radiography as the primary imaging method for the lesion
- CIncluding bone metastases in the differential diagnosis in a patient older than 40 years
- DOrdering laboratory determination of alkaline phosphatase levels
Show answer
Paget's disease is often polyostotic, affecting multiple bones simultaneously. To assess the true extent of the process and identify asymptomatic lesions, the standard of care is skeletal scintigraphy or radiography of all bones.
When crystals are detected in synovial fluid to rule out septic arthritis, the following must be performed:
- APolarized light microscopy and determination of crystal type
- BCell count with leukocyte differential, Gram staining, and bacterial culture
- CJoint radiography and blood CRP determination
- DJoint ultrasound and synovial membrane biopsy
Show answer
The presence of crystals in synovial fluid does not rule out a concomitant infectious process (septic arthritis). To reliably exclude bacterial inflammation, it is necessary to perform a leukocyte count, Gram-stained smear microscopy, and bacterial culture of the joint aspirate.
A patient with cervical osteochondrosis presents with pain along the inner surface of the arm, forearm, and hand up to the IV–V digits, along with coldness and cyanosis of the hand. Examination reveals tension of the anterior scalene muscle. Which syndrome is most likely?
- AScapulohumeral periarthritis syndrome
- BVertebral artery syndrome
- CAnterior scalene muscle syndrome
- DEpicondylitis syndrome
Show answer
Spasm of the anterior scalene muscle leads to compression of the subclavian artery and the lower primary trunk of the brachial plexus, causing vascular disorders and pain in the innervation zone of the ulnar nerve.
Which method is used for the differential diagnosis of sesamoiditis when standard methods do not provide a clear picture?
- AComparison with the contralateral foot on radiography
- BJoint aspiration with polarization microscopy
- InMRI
- DStress radiography
Show answer
When radiography is uninformative, MRI allows the detection of bone marrow edema of the sesamoid bones, inflammation of the surrounding tendons, and the exclusion of aseptic necrosis.
How does Lyme arthritis differ from septic arthritis in terms of the synovial fluid leukocyte count?
- AIn Lyme arthritis, leukocytes are about 10,000 cells/mm³, while in septic arthritis they are >50,000 cells/mm³
- BThe leukocyte count is the same in both diseases and is not used for differentiation
- CIn Lyme arthritis, leukocytes are ~20,000–50,000 cells/mm³, while in septic arthritis they are about 10,000 cells/mm³
- DIn Lyme arthritis, leukocytes are >50,000 cells/mm³, while in septic arthritis they are about 10,000 cells/mm³
Show answer
Bacterial (septic) arthritis is characterized by a pronounced purulent effusion with a leukocytosis of more than 50,000 cells/mm³, whereas in Lyme arthritis inflammation is less aggressive and the leukocyte count is typically significantly lower.
Which form of osteoporosis is characterized by wedge-shaped deformity of the vertebral bodies on radiography?
- AIdiopathic form
- BForm associated with diabetes mellitus
- CPostmenopausal form
- DSteroid-induced form
Show answer
Postmenopausal osteoporosis is characterized by preferential loss of trabecular bone tissue, leading to compression wedge fractures of the vertebral bodies and the formation of thoracic kyphosis.
Which instrumental diagnostic method allows an objective assessment of the severity of articular cartilage damage in osteoarthritis?
- AJoint MRI
- BJoint CT
- CJoint ultrasound
- DArthroscopy
Show answer
Arthroscopy allows visual assessment of the condition of the articular surfaces, determination of the exact depth and area of cartilage damage, and palpation to assess its density. This makes it the most objective method for direct diagnosis of intra-articular pathology.
A patient with an acute gout attack sought medical care. Affection of which joint is historically designated by the term "gout" (podagra)?
- AKnee joint
- BAnkle joint
- C1st metatarsophalangeal joint of the foot
- DWrist joint
Show answer
Historically, the term "podagra" (from Greek *pous* — foot, and *agra* — trap) was used specifically to denote acute arthritis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the foot. This is the most frequent and classic localization of the first disease attack.
Mammary Paget's disease, described by the same researcher as Paget's disease of bone, represents:
- ABenign breast dysplasia
- BA form of breast cancer involving the nipple
- CAn inflammatory breast disease
Show answer
Mammary Paget's disease is a malignant neoplasm in which atypical cells infiltrate the epidermis of the nipple and areola. The disease clinically manifests as eczema-like changes and is often associated with ductal carcinoma in situ.
A 65-year-old patient with knee osteoarthritis suddenly experienced sharp pain in the joint and could not continue walking — joint movements became severely restricted. After a few passive movements, the pain decreased and the range of motion was restored. Which complication of osteoarthritis has the patient most likely developed?
- ASecondary reactive synovitis with joint effusion
- BJoint blockade syndrome due to entrapment of a "joint mouse"
- CArthrogenic contracture due to cicatricial changes in the capsule
- DMuscle hypotrophy with increased load on the articular surfaces
Show answer
Sudden severe restriction of movement followed by rapid recovery after passive movements is the classic clinical picture of the entrapment of a loose intra-articular body ("joint mouse"). In osteoarthritis, such bodies most often consist of detached fragments of osteophytes or degenerated cartilage.
Frequently asked questions
Where do these traumatology and orthopedics questions come from?
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