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Tests with answers · Microbiology

Microbiology tests with answers: 50 questions for exam preparation

50 multiple-choice questions in microbiology from the WhiteCoat Pro course bank: correct answer and a brief explanation under each question. Solve them online in the simulator or browse the list below — questions are divided by syllabus sections.

Questions on page50 with answers
Course sections10
Questions in the full bank5,852
Test duration≈ 30 min
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Study of Immunity

5 questions
1

Which surface marker is expressed at all stages of B-lymphocyte maturation in the bone marrow?

  1. ACD8+
  2. BCD19+
  3. CCD3+
  4. DCD4+
Show answer
Answer: B) CD19+

The CD19 molecule is a pan-B-cell marker that appears at the pro-B-lymphocyte stage and persists throughout antigen-independent maturation in the bone marrow. The other listed markers (CD3, CD4, CD8) are characteristic of T-lymphocytes.

2

How does the antigen-binding cleft of MHC class II differ from that of MHC class I?

  1. AIt is formed by a single chain and accommodates 12–25 amino acid peptides
  2. BIt is formed by two chains and accommodates 8–10 amino acid peptides
  3. CIt is formed by two chains and accommodates 12–25 amino acid peptides
  4. DIt is formed by a single chain and accommodates 8–10 amino acid peptides
Show answer
Answer: C) It is formed by two chains and accommodates 12–25 amino acid peptides

The antigen-binding cleft of MHC class II molecules is formed by domains of two different chains (alpha and beta) and has open ends, allowing it to bind longer peptides compared to MHC class I.

3

What happens to a T-lymphocyte when its TCR binds an antigen on MHC II in the absence of additional signals?

  1. ACell apoptosis
  2. BDifferentiation into T_reg
  3. CCell activation and proliferation
  4. DExpression of homing receptors
Show answer
Answer: A) Cell apoptosis

Recognition of an antigen by the T-cell receptor without simultaneous receipt of a co-stimulatory signal (signal 2) leads to the induction of apoptosis or lymphocyte anergy.

4

To which family do mites, which are a major component of house dust and potent indoor allergens, belong?

  1. AIxodidae
  2. BSarcoptidae
  3. CDemodicidae
  4. DPyroglyphidae
Show answer
Answer: D) Pyroglyphidae

House dust mites (e.g., Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus) belong to the family Pyroglyphidae and are the main sources of indoor inhalant allergens.

5

In an immunological laboratory, a patient with a severe viral infection (suspected influenza) is evaluated for the activation of pattern recognition receptors. It has been established that an endosomal Toll-like receptor plays a key role in recognizing the single-stranded RNA of the influenza virus. Which receptor provides this recognition?

  1. ATLR9
  2. BTLR7
  3. CTLR3
Show answer
Answer: B) TLR7

Single-stranded viral RNA is recognized by endosomal receptors TLR7 and TLR8. By contrast, TLR3 binds double-stranded RNA, and TLR9 binds unmethylated DNA.

Regular Gram-Positive Bacilli (Lactobacillus, Listeria)

5 questions
6

On a farm, several cows fell ill with signs of infection. Examination of the water from the drinking troughs revealed contamination with feces and urine from sick animals. What is the most likely route of infection in this case?

  1. AAlimentary (via infected water and feed)
  2. BVector-borne (via insect bites)
  3. CAirborne (via inhalation of dust)
  4. DContact (through damaged skin)
Show answer
Answer: A) Alimentary (via infected water and feed)

Consumption of pathogen-contaminated water from drinking troughs executes the fecal-oral mechanism of infection transmission. The main route of infection in this case is alimentary (waterborne).

7

In a newborn with signs of meningoencephalitis, autopsy findings in the brain tissue revealed necrotic granulomas consisting of cells of the affected organ, mononuclear phagocytes, and an intracellular pathogen. Which pathological process is most likely described?

  1. AAbscesses in staphylococcal meningitis
  2. BListeriomas in listeriosis
  3. CTuberculous granulomas in tuberculosis
  4. DTyphoid nodules in typhoid fever
Show answer
Answer: B) Listeriomas in listeriosis

Congenital listeriosis (granulomatous sepsis of newborns) is characterized by the formation of specific granulomas—listeriomas—containing necrotic masses, macrophages, and intracellular bacteria.

8

An immunocompromised patient consulted a physician after consuming raw milk and soft cheeses. What is the most likely transmission mechanism of listeriosis in this case?

  1. АAirborne
  2. БVertical
  3. ВAlimentary
  4. ГContact
Show answer
Answer: V) Alimentary

Infection with listeriosis through the consumption of contaminated dairy products occurs via the alimentary route through the gastrointestinal tract.

9

During an epizootiological investigation of an infection outbreak, it was established that wild animals in the area are affected, but no mortality is observed among them. At the same time, the pathogen was detected in soil and water samples near rodent burrows. What is the most likely mechanism of environmental contamination?

  1. АExcretion of the pathogen with saliva during bites
  2. БExcretion of the pathogen with exhaled air of animals
  3. ВExcretion of the pathogen with animal urine and excrement
Show answer
Answer: V) Excretion of the pathogen with animal urine and excrement

The primary route for zoonotic bacteria (e.g., leptospires or listerias) to enter soil and water bodies is through their excretion by infected rodents along with urine and feces. This ensures the maintenance of the natural focus of infection.

10

Blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) were sampled for examination from a newborn showing signs of sepsis. The bacteriological method for isolating a pure culture yielded a positive result. Which method is primary for confirming the diagnosis of listeriosis?

  1. АMolecular genetic method — PCR to detect Listeria DNA
  2. БBacteriological method — isolation of a pure culture of the pathogen
  3. ВSerological method — determination of antibody titers in paired sera
  4. ГAllergic method — skin testing
Show answer
Answer: B) Bacteriological method — isolation of a pure culture of the pathogen

The gold standard and primary method for confirming the diagnosis of listeriosis remains bacteriological examination with the isolation and identification of a pure culture of Listeria monocytogenes from sterile biological fluids.

Study the full topic in the «Microbiology» course

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Mycoplasma

5 questions
11

Which property of mycoplasmas explains their pleomorphism?

  1. АPresence of a microcapsule
  2. БSmall cell size
  3. ВPresence of sterols in the membrane
  4. ГLack of a cell wall
Show answer
Answer: G) Lack of a cell wall

Mycoplasmas genetically lack the ability to synthesize peptidoglycan, which is why they do not have a rigid cell wall. This allows their cells to easily change shape and determines pronounced pleomorphism.

12

Which cell type is the primary target for M. pneumoniae in respiratory tract infections?

  1. АGoblet cells of the mucous membrane
  2. БCiliated epithelial cells
  3. ВAlveolar macrophages
  4. ГEndothelial cells of lung capillaries
Show answer
Answer: B) Ciliated epithelial cells

Mycoplasma pneumoniae is tropic to respiratory epithelial cells, to the surface of which it attaches, causing damage to cilia and impaired mucociliary clearance.

13

A preterm newborn was found to have a pathology associated with a mycoplasma infection. Which pathogens are most likely responsible for this condition?

  1. АM. pneumoniae and M. genitalium
  2. БM. pneumoniae and M. hominis
  3. ВM. hominis and U. urealyticum
  4. ГU. urealyticum and M. pneumoniae
Show answer
Answer: V) M. hominis and U. urealyticum

Urogenital mycoplasmas (Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum) are capable of being transmitted from mother to fetus intrauterinely or during childbirth, causing congenital pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis in premature infants.

14

What mechanism of interaction between mycoplasmas and the host cell underlies their pathogenicity?

  1. АProduction of exotoxin without cell contact
  2. БIntracellular parasitism with destruction of the nucleus
  3. ВFormation of spores inside the host cell
  4. ГMembrane parasitism with cytotoxic and cytolytic action
Show answer
Answer: G) Membrane parasitism with cytotoxic and cytolytic action

Mycoplasmas lack a cell wall and exhibit a pronounced tropism for host cell membranes, attaching tightly to them and exerting a membranetoxic and cytolytic effect through peroxides and enzymes.

15

Which substance is a mandatory supplement to nutrient media for cultivating mycoplasmas, as it is required for building their membrane?

  1. АNAD (factor V)
  2. БBile salts
  3. ВHemin
  4. ГCholesterol
Show answer
Answer: G) Cholesterol

Mycoplasmas lack a cell wall; therefore, sterols (cholesterol), which they are unable to synthesize independently, are necessary to stabilize their cytoplasmic membrane.

Slow Viral Infections and Prions

5 questions
16

What mechanism underlies the iatrogenic route of transmission of prion diseases?

  1. АConsumption of meat from infected animals
  2. БAirborne spread of prion particles
  3. ВAdministration of immunobiological products contaminated with prions
  4. ГTransmission of prions via vector insect bites
Show answer
Answer: В) Administration of immunobiological products contaminated with prions

The iatrogenic transmission route is associated with medical interventions. In the case of prion diseases, infection can occur through the use of contaminated neurosurgical instruments, grafts, or products of human origin (e.g., growth hormone).

17

What is the mechanism of transmission of kuru prion disease?

  1. АContact — through damaged skin
  2. БAlimentary — ritual cannibalism (ingestion of the brains of the deceased)
  3. ВAirborne droplet — through contact with an infected person
  4. ГTransmissible — via insect bites
Show answer
Answer: Б) Alimentary — ritual cannibalism (ingestion of the brains of the deceased)

Historically, kuru spread among the tribes of Papua New Guinea via the alimentary route during ritual consumption of the brains of deceased fellow tribesmen, which contained a high concentration of prions.

18

Where does the primary replication of pathological prions occur during alimentary infection?

  1. АIn lymphoid tissues (spleen, appendix, tonsils)
  2. БIn bone marrow cells
  3. ВIn the epithelium of the small intestine
  4. ГDirectly in brain cells
Show answer
Answer: А) In lymphoid tissues (spleen, appendix, tonsils)

Upon oral ingestion, prions are first captured by the intestinal lymphoid tissue and accumulate in the organs of the reticuloendothelial system (tonsils, spleen) prior to neuroinvasion.

19

Who proved the infectious nature of kuru?

  1. АD. Carleton Gajdusek
  2. БR. Koch
  3. ВS. Prusiner
  4. ГL. Pasteur
Show answer
Answer: А) D. Carleton Gajdusek

Carlton Gajdusek experimentally proved the infectious nature of kuru in the 1960s by successfully infecting chimpanzees with a brain tissue suspension from deceased individuals, for which he was subsequently awarded the Nobel Prize.

20

To which group of diseases do prion diseases belong in modern science?

  1. АSlow virus infections
  2. БConformational diseases
  3. ВPrion infectious diseases
  4. ГAutoimmune dysproteinoses
Show answer
Answer: Б) Conformational diseases

Prion pathologies are classified as conformational diseases because their pathogenesis is driven by the conversion of the normal cellular protein PrPC into the pathological isoform PrPSc with an altered tertiary structure.

Dermatophytoses (Microsporum, Trichophyton, Favus, Epidermophyton/Rubrophytosis, etc.)

5 questions
21

Examination of an old culture from a patient with superficial trichophytosis reveals thin (3–4 µm) convoluted sparsely septate mycelium, various chlamydospores, and arthrospores. Which pathogen is most likely?

  1. АTrichophyton tonsurans
  2. БTrichophyton violaceum
  3. ВTrichophyton mentagrophytes
Show answer
Answer: Б) Trichophyton violaceum

Old cultures of Trichophyton violaceum are characterized by the absence of micro- and macroconidia, while the mycelium becomes thin and convoluted, forming numerous chlamydospores and arthrospores. This anthropophilic fungus is one of the main causative agents of superficial trichophytosis.

22

What three main genera comprise the group of dermatophytes?

  1. АCandida, Aspergillus, Epidermophyton
  2. БMicrosporum, Mucor, Trichophyton
  3. ВMicrosporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton
  4. ГTrichophyton, Fusarium, Microsporum
Show answer
Answer: В) Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton

The dermatophyte group traditionally includes three anamorphic fungal genera: Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton, which exhibit keratinolytic activity and infect the skin, hair, and nails.

23

What type of arthroconidia arrangement is characteristic of Microsporum canis on hair in vivo?

  1. АPeritrix (along the entire length inside and outside)
  2. БEndothrix (inside the hair)
  3. ВFavic (as a sheath at the base of the hair)
  4. ГEctothrix (outside the hair)
Show answer
Answer: Г) Ectothrix (outside the hair)

Fungi of the genus Microsporum causing hair infection in vivo are characterized by an ectothrix type of sporulation, where arthrospores form a dense sheath on the outside of the hair shaft.

24

On which nutrient medium do dermatophytes grow well?

  1. АEgg yolk-salt agar
  2. БEndo agar
  3. ВSabouraud medium
  4. ГBlood agar
Show answer
Answer: В) Sabouraud medium

Sabouraud medium contains peptone, a high concentration of carbohydrates (maltose or glucose), and has a mildly acidic reaction. This creates optimal conditions for the elective cultivation of pathogenic fungi, including dermatophytes.

25

What is the main treatment approach for black piedra (piedraiosis)?

  1. ATopical antimycotics
  2. BBroad-spectrum systemic antibiotics
  3. CAntifungal immunoglobulins
  4. DSystemic antimycotics (itraconazole orally)
Show answer
Answer: A) Topical antimycotics

Since black piedra affects only the cuticle of the hair shaft without involving the hair follicle and skin, the primary treatment is hair clipping/shaving combined with topical antifungals.

Introduction to Microbiology and Immunology

5 questions
26

Louis Pasteur developed vaccines against a number of infections using the pathogen attenuation method. Which diseases did he create these vaccines for?

  1. ASmallpox, fowl cholera, rabies
  2. BFowl cholera, anthrax, rabies
  3. CFowl cholera, plague, anthrax
  4. DAnthrax, tuberculosis, rabies
Show answer
Answer: B) Fowl cholera, anthrax, rabies

Louis Pasteur was the first to apply the principle of attenuation (weakening) of microorganisms to create vaccines. His major achievements in this field included the development of vaccines against fowl cholera, anthrax, and rabies.

27

A researcher is studying causative agents of human infectious diseases, including bacteria, fungi, viruses, and protozoa. Which branch of microbiology does this activity belong to?

  1. AVeterinary microbiology
  2. BMedical microbiology
  3. CMarine microbiology
  4. DAgricultural microbiology
Show answer
Answer: B) Medical microbiology

The study of human pathogens (bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa) is the subject of medical microbiology.

28

How does Louis Pasteur's approach to vaccine development fundamentally differ from Edward Jenner's approach?

  1. APasteur used live unaltered pathogens, whereas Jenner used killed microorganisms
  2. BPasteur substantiated the principle of pathogen attenuation, whereas Jenner acted empirically without understanding the biological mechanism
  3. CJenner used attenuated strains, whereas Pasteur used natural viruses from related animals
  4. DJenner developed vaccines against bacterial infections, while Pasteur developed them against viral ones
Show answer
Answer: B) Pasteur substantiated the principle of pathogen attenuation, whereas Jenner acted empirically without understanding the biological mechanism

Edward Jenner empirically used the natural cowpox virus for vaccination, whereas Louis Pasteur purposefully developed methods for the artificial attenuation (weakening) of pathogenic microorganisms to obtain safe vaccine strains.

29

Which Russian scientist is considered the founder of antibiotic therapy in the USSR and created the first Soviet penicillin?

  1. AA.A. Smorodintsev
  2. BG.V. Vygodchikov
  3. CA.A. Vorobyov
  4. DZ.V. Yermolieva
Show answer
Answer: D) Z.V. Yermolieva

In 1942, Zinaida Vissarionovna Yermolieva obtained the first domestic penicillin (krustosin) in the USSR and actively introduced antibiotic therapy into clinical practice.

30

Which scientist from Pasteur's school developed the method for producing toxoids used for active immunization?

  1. AÉ. Roux
  2. BG. Ramon
  3. CA.M. Bezredka
  4. DN.F. Gamaleya
Show answer
Answer: B) G. Ramon

The method of converting exotoxins into safe yet immunogenic toxoids by treatment with formalin at 37–40 °C was proposed by the French microbiologist Gaston Ramon in 1923.

Study of Infection

5 questions
31

A patient with chronic hepatitis B is found during examination to have a co-infection with another virus that is incapable of independent replication without a helper virus. Which pathogen was most likely detected?

  1. AAdenovirus
  2. BHepatitis A virus
  3. CHepatitis C virus
  4. DHepatitis D virus
Show answer
Answer: D) Hepatitis D virus

Hepatitis D virus is a defective virus (satellite) that requires the hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) to assemble complete virions and exit the cell. Therefore, hepatitis D virus infection is only possible in the presence of hepatitis B virus.

32

How does invasiveness differ from aggressiveness as pathogenicity factors?

  1. AInvasiveness is the suppression of phagocytosis; aggressiveness is penetration into cells
  2. BInvasiveness is overcoming barriers and spreading through tissues; aggressiveness is suppressing host immunity
  3. CInvasiveness is the synthesis of exotoxins; aggressiveness is the colonization of mucous membranes
  4. DInvasiveness is toxic tissue damage; aggressiveness is adherence to tissue surfaces
Show answer
Answer: B) Invasiveness is overcoming barriers and spreading through tissues; aggressiveness is suppressing host immunity

Invasiveness ensures microbial penetration through mucous membranes and connective tissue, while aggressiveness aims to counteract the host's defense mechanisms, for example, by suppressing phagocytosis.

33

The substrate of hyaluronidase is:

  1. ASialic acid
  2. BMucin
  3. CHyaluronic acid
Show answer
Answer: C) Hyaluronic acid

The aggression enzyme hyaluronidase degrades hyaluronic acid in the extracellular matrix, facilitating pathogen invasion into tissues.

34

Why does the efficacy of antitoxic serum decrease when serotherapy is initiated late?

  1. ALate-administered antibodies induce an autoimmune reaction
  2. BAntibodies are degraded by blood proteases within a few hours
  3. CAntibodies lose their specificity to the toxin upon prolonged circulation in the blood
  4. DAntibodies do not cross the cell membrane and cannot neutralize the A subunit that has already translocated into the cytoplasm
Show answer
Answer: D) Antibodies do not cross the cell membrane and cannot neutralize the A subunit that has already translocated into the cytoplasm

Antibodies are large protein molecules that are unable to penetrate inside cells. They can neutralize only freely circulating toxin, but are powerless against subunits that have already entered the cytoplasm of the target cell.

35

A patient is diagnosed with a helminth-induced disease. How should this pathology be designated?

  1. AInfectious disease of viral etiology
  2. BInfectious disease of bacterial etiology
  3. CInvasion (parasitic) disease
Show answer
Answer: C) Invasion (parasitic) disease

Diseases caused by animal parasites (including helminths and arthropods) are classified as invasion (parasitic) diseases.

Pathogens of Acute Respiratory Viral Infections

5 questions
36

Pathohistological examination of the patient's brain tissue reveals spongiform changes, astrocytosis, and amyloid deposits. Inflammatory infiltrates are absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AViral encephalitis
  2. BBacterial meningitis
  3. CPrion disease
  4. DAutoimmune encephalitis
Show answer
Answer: C) Prion disease

Spongiform neuronal degeneration, glial proliferation (astrocytosis), and amyloid plaque formation in the complete absence of signs of inflammation represent the classic pathomorphological picture of prion diseases (transmissible spongiform encephalopathies).

37

What principle underlies the hemagglutination inhibition assay (HIA) in the diagnosis of acute respiratory viral infections (ARVI)?

  1. AAgglutination of bacterial cells by viral antigens
  2. BBlocking of the viral hemagglutinating activity by antibodies
  3. CComplement fixation by viral antigens
  4. DPrecipitation of viral antigens by specific antibodies
Show answer
Answer: B) Blocking of the viral hemagglutinating activity by antibodies

The HIA is based on the ability of specific antibodies to bind to the surface hemagglutinins of viruses, thereby depriving them of the ability to agglutinate erythrocytes.

38

Which class of antibodies plays a leading role in local immunity during acute respiratory viral infections (ARVI)?

  1. AIgM
  2. BSerum IgG
  3. CIgE
  4. DSecretory IgA
Show answer
Answer: D) Secretory IgA

Secretory immunoglobulin A predominates on the mucous membranes of the respiratory tract and provides the first line of specific defense against respiratory viruses.

39

Which target cell receptor do rhinovirus capsid proteins bind to during adhesion?

  1. AIntegrins
  2. BICAM-1
  3. CGlycoprotein receptors
  4. DCell surface glycosides
Show answer
Answer: B) ICAM-1

Most rhinovirus serotypes (the so-called major group) use intercellular adhesion molecule 1 (ICAM-1), located on the surface of respiratory epithelial cells, as a cellular receptor.

40

The SARS-associated virus belongs to the family:

  1. APicornaviridae
  2. BAdenoviridae
  3. CCoronaviridae
  4. DParamyxoviridae
Show answer
Answer: C) Coronaviridae

SARS-CoV and SARS-CoV-2 are representatives of the genus Betacoronavirus within the family Coronaviridae.

Morphology and Classification of Microbes

5 questions
41

If a deuteromycete is found to have a sexual reproduction process, to which taxon is it reassigned?

  1. AOomycota or Glomeromycota
  2. BAscomycota or Basidiomycota
  3. CZygomycota or Chytridiomycota
Show answer
Answer: B) Ascomycota or Basidiomycota

Deuteromycetes (imperfect fungi) bring together species with an undetermined sexual process. Upon discovery of a teleomorph (sexual stage), they are most often reclassified into the phyla Ascomycota or Basidiomycota.

42

What morphological feature distinguishes Sporozoa from other protozoa?

  1. APresence of flagella
  2. BPresence of cilia
  3. CAbsence of locomotory organelles in adult forms
  4. DLocomotion via pseudopodia
Show answer
Answer: C) Absence of organs of movement in adult forms

Apicomplexans are parasitic and lack independent organs of movement at the adult stage, unlike flagellates, sarcodines, and ciliates.

43

Which surface structures are located on the supercapsid (envelope) of complex viruses?

  1. ANucleoprotein filaments
  2. BProtein capsomeres
  3. CGlycoprotein "spikes" — peplomers
  4. DLipopolysaccharide antennae
Show answer
Answer: C) Glycoprotein "spikes" — peplomers

The supercapsid of complex viruses is a lipid bilayer with embedded virus-specific glycoproteins that form spikes (peplomers) on the surface. They play a key role in recognizing host cell receptors and attaching to them.

44

By what mechanism do chlamydial elementary bodies enter the epithelial cell?

  1. APassive diffusion
  2. BEndocytosis
  3. CInjection via type III secretion
  4. DDirect fusion with the cell membrane
Show answer
Answer: B) Endocytosis

The infectious form of chlamydia (elementary body) enters a susceptible cell via receptor-mediated endocytosis with the formation of an endosome.

45

How does the bacterial nuclear apparatus fundamentally differ from the eukaryotic nucleus?

  1. AIn bacteria, the nucleus contains histones but lacks a nuclear envelope
  2. BIn bacteria, the nucleus contains a nucleolus but lacks histones
  3. CIn bacteria, the nucleus is surrounded by a double membrane but lacks a nucleolus
  4. DIn bacteria, the nuclear envelope, nucleolus, and histones are absent
Show answer
Answer: D) In bacteria, the nuclear envelope, nucleolus, and histones are absent

The bacterial nuclear apparatus (nucleoid) is a DNA molecule that is not separated from the cytoplasm by a nuclear membrane, does not form a nucleolus, and is not associated with true histones.

Coronaviruses

5 questions
46

What type of nucleocapsid symmetry is characteristic of coronaviruses?

  1. AMixed (binary)
  2. BWithout distinct symmetry
  3. CHelical
  4. DCubic (icosahedral)
Show answer
Answer: C) Helical

Coronaviruses have a helical nucleocapsid symmetry type, in which genomic RNA is associated with the N protein, forming a helical structure inside the viral envelope.

47

A patient presents with nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and a sore throat. Virological examination of nasopharyngeal secretions reveals a virus with a characteristic ring of specific protrusions on the virion surface. Which pathogen is most likely isolated?

  1. ARhinovirus
  2. BCoronavirus
  3. CParainfluenza virus
  4. DAdenovirus
Show answer
Answer: B) Coronavirus

On electron microscopy, coronaviruses have a characteristic appearance due to massive club-shaped peplomers (S proteins) on the supercapsid. They form a figure resembling a solar corona.

48

Which laboratory confirmation methods are used in the diagnosis of Marburg and Ebola to detect virus components and antibodies?

  1. AWassermann reaction, CFT, agglutination
  2. BBacterioscopy, culture on nutrient media, IHA
  3. CElectron microscopy, cell culture, precipitation reaction
  4. DRT-PCR, IFA, ELISA
Show answer
Answer: D) RT-PCR, IFA, ELISA

RT-PCR is used to detect filovirus RNA (Marburg, Ebola), while immunofluorescence assay (IFA) and ELISA are used to detect viral antigens and specific antibodies.

49

Which coronavirus protein is the inducer of virus-neutralizing antibody production?

  1. AGlycoprotein S
  2. BProtein E
  3. CNucleocapsid protein N
  4. DGlycoprotein M
Show answer
Answer: A) Glycoprotein S

The spike glycoprotein S is responsible for binding the coronavirus to target cell receptors, which is why antibodies specifically directed against this protein block virus entry and possess neutralizing activity.

50

What is the diameter of coronavirus virions?

  1. A20–40 nm
  2. B80–220 nm
  3. C300–400 nm
  4. D40–80 nm
Show answer
Answer: B) 80–220 nm

Coronaviruses are relatively large enveloped spherical viruses ranging in size from 80 to 220 nm.

Frequently asked questions

Where do these microbiology questions come from?

From the question bank of the WhiteCoat Pro "Microbiology" course — the same one students use to prepare for classes. The bank contains a total of 5,852 questions; this includes 50 across 10 sections with answers and brief explanations.

Are these tests suitable for colloquiums and exams?

The questions are compiled according to the medical school curriculum and cover the main sections of the subject. We do not guarantee a match with the exam questions of any specific university: use the test to identify gaps, and review weak topics using a reference book or within the course.

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