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Tests with answers · Neurology

Neurology Practice Tests with Answers: 50 Questions for Exam Preparation

50 neurology test questions from the WhiteCoat Pro course bank: correct answers and brief explanations are provided under each question. Solve online using the simulator or scroll through the list below — questions are grouped by curriculum sections.

Questions on page50 with answers
Course sections10
Total questions in the complete bank2,102
Test duration≈ 30 min
Simulator: take the test onlineSelect an option to instantly see the correct answer and explanation. Your result will be saved in this browser.

Topical Diagnosis in Neurology (Duus)

6 questions
1

A patient presents with symptoms of a lesion affecting the spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve. Which prominence on the dorsolateral surface of the medulla oblongata corresponds to this localization?

  1. ABasilar sulcus of the pons
  2. BOlives
  3. CTuberculum cinereum (trigeminal tubercle)
  4. DMiddle cerebellar peduncle
Show answer
Answer: C) Tuberculum cinereum (trigeminal tubercle)

The spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve and its nucleus form a characteristic elevation on the dorsolateral surface of the medulla oblongata — the tuberculum cinereum.

2

Which nerve fibers make up the posterior root?

  1. AVisceral afferent and efferent fibers innervating internal organs
  2. BEfferent nerve fibers (leaving the spinal cord)
  3. CAfferent nerve fibers (entering the spinal cord)
  4. DSomatic efferent fibers innervating skeletal muscle
Show answer
Answer: C) Afferent nerve fibers (entering the spinal cord)

The posterior roots of the spinal cord are formed by axons of sensory (pseudounipolar) neurons of the spinal ganglia, which conduct afferent impulses from peripheral receptors to central nervous system structures.

3

Which receptor in the muscle length control system detects changes in length?

  1. AGolgi tendon organ
  2. BNuclear bag fibers located within muscle spindles
  3. CNuclear chain fibers located within muscle spindles
Show answer
Answer: B) Nuclear bag fibers located within muscle spindles

Nuclear bag fibers in muscle spindles respond to rapid changes in muscle length (dynamic response), whereas nuclear chain fibers register its constant length.

4

With which blood vessels do the branches of the vertebral artery supplying the spinal cord form an anastomotic network?

  1. APosterior cerebral artery and superior cerebellar artery
  2. BInternal carotid artery and anterior choroidal artery
  3. CAnterior cerebral artery and middle cerebral artery
  4. DSegmental spinal arteries and deep cervical arteries
Show answer
Answer: D) Segmental spinal arteries and deep cervical arteries

The branches of the vertebral artery supplying the spinal cord form a single network with the radicular branches of the segmental arteries of the neck, trunk, and deep cervical arteries. This ensures reliable collateral circulation at different levels of the spinal cord.

5

A patient acutely develops pathological somnolence (sudden falling asleep during examination), marked apathy/abulia, profound disorientation in time and space, and severe amnesia. Which lesion localization on MRI best corresponds to this clinical picture?

  1. AThalamoperforating arteries (Percheron artery)
  2. BDorsomedial thalamus (medial-rostral parts), bilateral
  3. CBrainstem
  4. DCerebral cortex
Show answer
Answer: B) Dorsomedial thalamus (medial-rostral parts), bilateral

A bilateral lesion of the medial-rostral parts of the dorsomedial thalamus disrupts the functions of the reticular formation and limbic connections, leading to disorders of consciousness (hypersomnia, apathy) and severe amnesia.

6

Which structure in the Papez circuit is considered the starting point?

  1. ACingulate gyrus
  2. BHippocampus (Ammon's horn)
  3. CAnterior nucleus of the thalamus
  4. DFornix
Show answer
Answer: B) Hippocampus (Ammon's horn)

Traditionally, the description of the Papez circuit begins with the hippocampus, from which nerve impulses travel via the fornix to the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus.

Somatosensory Disorders

6 questions
7

A patient has a loss of tactile and deep sensation on the right half of the face. Where is the lesion of the pathway most likely located if the symptoms are caused by damage to the cortical end of the pathway?

  1. APostcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe of the left hemisphere
  2. BTrigeminal ganglion (Gasserian ganglion)
  3. CMain sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve in the upper pons
  4. GVentrolateral nucleus of the thalamus
Show answer
Answer: A) Postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe of the left hemisphere

The cortical representation of facial sensation is located in the lower third of the postcentral gyrus. Because the sensory pathways decussate, sensory impairment on the right half of the face results from a lesion in the left hemisphere.

8

Where is the main sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve (2nd neuron) located for tactile and deep sensation of the head and face?

  1. AIn the ventrolateral nucleus of the thalamus
  2. BIn the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe of the opposite side
  3. CIn the upper part of the pons
Show answer
Answer: C) In the upper part of the pons

The main (pontine) sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve, responsible for tactile and proprioceptive sensation of the face, is located in the tegmentum of the pons.

9

A patient presents with a loss of deep (proprioceptive) sensation in the right upper extremity. At what level does switching to the II neuron of this pathway occur?

  1. AVentrolateral nucleus of the thalamus
  2. BNucleus gracilis at the level of the medulla oblongata
  3. CNucleus cuneatus at the level of the medulla oblongata
  4. DPostcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe
Show answer
Answer: C) Nucleus cuneatus at the level of the medulla oblongata

Fibers of the deep sensation pathways from the upper extremities travel within the cuneate fasciculus and synapse on second-order neurons in the ipsilateral nucleus cuneatus of the medulla oblongata. The gracile fasciculus carries analogous information from the lower extremities.

10

What is the name of the structure formed after synaptic switching in the gracile and cuneate nuclei?

  1. AMedial lemniscus (lemniscus medialis)
  2. BThalamus
  3. CPosterior funiculi
Show answer
Answer: A) Medial lemniscus (lemniscus medialis)

Axons of neurons from the gracile and cuneate nuclei decussate at the level of the medulla oblongata (forming the internal arcuate fibers) and form the medial lemniscus, which conducts deep sensation.

11

Indicate the Latin name for the nucleus of the spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve.

  1. AGasserian ganglion
  2. Bnucleus tractus spinalis nervi trigemini
  3. Cpons
  4. Dspinothalamic tract
Show answer
Answer: B) nucleus tractus spinalis nervi trigemini

The nucleus of the spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve (nucleus tractus spinalis nervi trigemini) provides pain and temperature sensation for the face.

12

A patient with preserved elementary modalities of sensation (tactile, thermal, deep) is unable to recognize objects by touch (astereognosis). Where is the lesion most likely localized?

  1. ALesion of the occipital lobe of the contralateral hemisphere
  2. BLesion of the frontal lobe cortex of the contralateral hemisphere
  3. CLesion of the postcentral gyrus of the ipsilateral hemisphere
  4. DLesion of the parietal lobe cortex posterior to the postcentral gyrus of the contralateral hemisphere
Show answer
Answer: D) Lesion of the parietal lobe cortex posterior to the postcentral gyrus of the contralateral hemisphere

Astereognosis occurs with lesions of the secondary somatosensory areas of the cortex located in the superior parietal lobule posterior to the postcentral gyrus. Because the sensory pathways decussate, symptoms develop on the side contralateral to the lesion.

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Impairment of facial expression muscles and taste. Lesion of the facial nerve

6 questions
13

Which muscle is innervated by the stapedial nerve (n. stapedius)?

  1. Am. orbicularis oris
  2. Bm. frontalis
  3. Cm. buccalis
  4. Dm. stapedius
Show answer
Answer: D) m. stapedius

The stapedial nerve is a branch of the facial nerve and provides motor innervation to the corresponding muscle (m. stapedius) within the tympanic cavity.

14

Which clinical presentation corresponds to peripheral facial nerve palsy?

  1. AThe upper part of the motor nucleus receives cortical innervation from both cerebral hemispheres, therefore the function of the upper facial muscles is preserved
  2. BThe lower part of the nucleus receives cortical innervation predominantly from the contralateral precentral gyrus
  3. CAll facial expression muscles on the affected side (ipsilaterally) are impaired: the eye does not close (lagophthalmos), the forehead does not wrinkle, the corner of the mouth is drooping, and the nasolabial fold is flattened
  4. DWeakness only in the lower facial muscles on the side opposite to the lesion; the patient can close their eyes tightly and wrinkle their forehead
Show answer
Answer: C) All facial expression muscles on the affected side (ipsilaterally) are impaired: the eye does not close (lagophthalmos), the forehead does not wrinkle, the corner of the mouth is drooping, and the nasolabial fold is flattened

When the facial nerve trunk itself or its nucleus is damaged, the innervation of the entire half of the face on the side of the lesion is impaired, which manifests as weakness of both the upper and lower facial expression muscles.

15

A lesion of the precentral gyrus results in paresis of which facial expression muscles?

  1. AAll facial expression muscles on the opposite side
  2. BAll facial expression muscles on the affected side
  3. COnly the upper facial expression muscles on the opposite side
  4. DOnly the lower part of the facial expression muscles on the opposite side
Show answer
Answer: D) Only the lower part of the facial expression muscles on the opposite side

The motor nucleus of the facial nerve innervating the upper face receives bilateral cortical innervation; therefore, in unilateral cortical lesions, only the lower half of the facial musculature on the opposite side is affected.

16

Where is the superior salivatory nucleus (n. salivatorius superior) located?

  1. AIn the pons near the motor nucleus of the facial nerve
  2. BIn the precentral gyrus
  3. BIn the facial canal
Show answer
Answer: A) In the pons near the motor nucleus of the facial nerve

The superior salivatory nucleus is a parasympathetic nucleus of the intermediate (facial) nerve. It lies in the tegmentum of the pons in close proximity to the motor nucleus of the facial nerve.

17

Which sign corresponds to peripheral facial nerve palsy (lesion of peripheral fibers / nucleus)?

  1. AAll facial muscles on the affected side are impaired (ipsilaterally): the eye does not close (lagophthalmos), the forehead does not wrinkle, the corner of the mouth is drooping, and the nasolabial fold is smoothed out
  2. BPreservation of the function of the upper facial muscles due to the healthy hemisphere
  3. CThe patient can close the eyes tightly and wrinkle the forehead with weakness of the lower facial muscles contralaterally
  4. DWeakness of only the lower facial muscles on the side opposite to the lesion (contralaterally)
Show answer
Answer: A) All facial muscles on the affected side are impaired (ipsilaterally): the eye does not close (lagophthalmos), the forehead does not wrinkle, the corner of the mouth is drooping, and the nasolabial fold is smoothed out

A lesion of the nucleus or trunk of the facial nerve results in peripheral paralysis involving all muscles of one half of the face, both in the upper and lower tiers.

18

How does central facial nerve palsy (upper motor neuron lesion) manifest clinically?

  1. AWeakness is observed only in the upper facial muscles on the affected side (ipsilaterally)
  2. BWeakness is observed only in the lower facial muscles on the side opposite to the lesion (contralaterally); the patient can close the eyes tightly and wrinkle the forehead
  3. CAll facial expression muscles on the affected side (ipsilaterally) are impaired: the eye does not close (lagophthalmos), the forehead does not wrinkle, the corner of the mouth is drooping, and the nasolabial fold is flattened
  4. DAll facial muscles are affected on the side opposite to the lesion (contralaterally)
Show answer
Answer: B) Weakness is observed only in the lower facial muscles on the side opposite to the lesion (contralaterally); the patient can close the eyes tightly and wrinkle the forehead

The upper part of the facial nerve nucleus receives bilateral cortical innervation, whereas the lower part receives only contralateral innervation; therefore, in central paresis, only the lower half of the face on the side opposite to the lesion is affected.

Movement disorders of the tongue. Hypoglossal nerve lesion

6 questions
19

What are the signs of a unilateral lesion of the hypoglossal nerve or its nucleus?

  1. AHyperkinesia
  2. BImpairment of speech articulation (dysarthria)
  3. CAtaxia
  4. DAphasia
Show answer
Answer: B) Impairment of speech articulation (dysarthria)

The hypoglossal nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue, so its lesion impairs tongue mobility, which clinically manifests as a speech articulation disorder (dysarthria).

20

Which pathological signs are evaluated during examination of the tongue in motion (the patient is asked to stick the tongue out past the dental arch)?

  1. ADeviation of the tongue to one side
  2. BAgnosia
  3. CApraxia
  4. DMeningeal syndrome
Show answer
Answer: A) Deviation of the tongue to the side (deviation)

In unilateral lesion of the hypoglossal nerve or its nucleus, the tongue deviates towards the weak muscle upon protrusion, i.e., towards the lesion in peripheral paresis.

21

In lesions of the hypoglossal nerve nuclei in the medulla oblongata, what is observed in the tongue muscles in addition to paresis?

  1. AMild dysarthria
  2. BFasciculations
  3. CComplete inability to speak
Show answer
Answer: B) Fasciculations

A lesion of the hypoglossal motor nucleus causes peripheral paralysis accompanied by denervation changes directly in the muscle tissue of the tongue — atrophy and fascicular twitching.

22

Where is the nucleus of the hypoglossal nerve located?

  1. AThrough the hypoglossal canal
  2. BIn the lower medulla oblongata, near the floor of the IV ventricle
  3. CAt the level between the pyramid and the inferior olive
  4. DFrom the contralateral precentral gyrus
Show answer
Answer: B) In the lower medulla oblongata, near the floor of the IV ventricle

The motor nucleus of the hypoglossal nerve lies in the medulla oblongata in the region of the hypoglossal trigone. This area is located in the lower part of the rhomboid fossa, which forms the floor of the IV ventricle.

23

A patient complains of slurred speech ("mush in the mouth"), having particular difficulty pronouncing the sounds "r", "l", and sibilants. On examination: upon protrusion, the tongue deviates to the side of the lesion. Which option is most likely?

  1. ACentral paresis of the tongue muscles (unilateral corticobulbar tract lesion)
  2. BAnarthria due to bilateral lesion of the hypoglossal nerves or their nuclei
  3. CNon-neurological cause of dysarthria (dental diseases/missing teeth/poor dentures)
  4. DPeripheral paresis of the tongue muscles (hypoglossal nerve lesion)
Show answer
Answer: D) Peripheral paresis of the tongue muscles (hypoglossal nerve lesion)

In peripheral lesions of the hypoglossal nerve, the healthy genioglossus muscle pushes the tongue toward the weak (affected) side.

24

What is observed in the tongue muscles in lesions of the hypoglossal nerve nuclei in the medulla oblongata in addition to paresis?

  1. AComplete inability to speak
  2. BMild dysarthria
  3. CFasciculations
Show answer
Answer: C) Fasciculations

A lesion of the hypoglossal motor nucleus causes peripheral paralysis of the tongue muscles. Nuclear lesions, in addition to weakness and atrophy, are characterized by the appearance of fasciculations — spontaneous contractions of individual muscle bundles.

Meningeal and hypertensive syndromes, hydrocephalus

5 questions
25

A child under 2 years of age clinically manifests hypertensive hydrocephalus. What leading symptom is expected considering the age characteristics?

  1. ASlight separation of the cerebral hemispheres
  2. БRapid (acute) impairment of consciousness
  3. ВEnlargement of the head
  4. ГCompression of tissues adjacent to the ventricles
Show answer
Answer: B) Enlargement of the head

In infants, the cranial sutures are not yet fused, so elevated intracranial pressure in hydrocephalus is compensated by separation of the sutures and a visible increase in head size.

26

Where does the absorption (resorption) of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) occur?

  1. АIn the superior sagittal sinus region via arachnoid granulations (Pachchioni granulations) into the dural venous sinuses
  2. БIn the interventricular foramen (foramen of Monro)
  3. ВIn the venous choroid plexuses of the ventricles (primarily the lateral ones)
  4. ГIn the subarachnoid space between the arachnoid and pia mater
Show answer
Answer: A) In the superior sagittal sinus region via arachnoid granulations (Pachchioni granulations) into the dural venous sinuses

The bulk of cerebrospinal fluid is resorbed into the venous system through arachnoid granulations (Pachchioni granulations) protruding into the lumen of the dural venous sinuses.

27

A patient is diagnosed with obstructive (non-communicating) hydrocephalus. Where anatomically can the obstruction disrupting CSF circulation be located?

  1. АExclusively in the spinal cord
  2. БAt any point between the lateral ventricles (the primary site of CSF production) and the subarachnoid space of the brain base
  3. ВOnly at the level of the cerebral cortex
  4. ГOnly in the subarachnoid space of the brain base
Show answer
Answer: B) At any point between the lateral ventricles (the primary site of CSF production) and the subarachnoid space of the brain base

Non-communicating hydrocephalus occurs when there is a mechanical obstruction to CSF flow within the ventricular system or at its outflow, prior to the fluid reaching the subarachnoid space for absorption.

28

Through which openings does the fourth ventricle communicate with the subarachnoid space?

  1. АThrough the interventricular foramen (foramen of Monro)
  2. БThrough the paired lateral apertures (foramina of Luschka) and the median aperture (foramen of Magendie)
  3. ВThrough the cerebral aqueduct
Show answer
Answer: B) Through the paired lateral apertures (foramina of Luschka) and the median aperture (foramen of Magendie)

Cerebrospinal fluid drains from the fourth ventricle into the cranial and spinal subarachnoid space through three openings: the unpaired median aperture (foramen of Magendie) and the two lateral apertures (foramina of Luschka).

29

Where does CSF absorption (resorption) take place?

  1. АIn the subarachnoid space (around the brain and spinal cord)
  2. БIn the superior sagittal sinus region via arachnoid granulations (Pachchioni granulations) into the dural venous sinuses
  3. ВIn the cerebral ventricles via the choroid plexuses (plexus chorioideus)
Show answer
Answer: B) In the superior sagittal sinus region via arachnoid granulations (Pachchioni granulations) into the dural venous sinuses

The bulk of cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations (Pachchioni granulations) projecting into the lumen of the dural venous sinuses.

Cerebrovascular disorders

4 questions
30

A patient with an ischemic stroke is scheduled to start antiplatelet therapy from the first day of the disease. Thrombolysis was not performed. Which first-line drug should be prescribed?

  1. АAggrenox
  2. БCiticoline 1000–2000 mg/day
  3. ВAlteplase (Actilyse) 0.9 mg/kg
  4. ГAspirin 150–300 mg/day
Show answer
Answer: G) Aspirin 150–300 mg/day

According to clinical guidelines, patients with ischemic stroke who have not undergone thrombolytic therapy are prescribed acetylsalicylic acid at a dose of 150–300 mg/day within the first 24–48 hours.

31

Which type of reperfusion therapy for ischemic stroke does systemic intravenous thrombolysis represent?

  1. АDrug (pharmacological) thrombolysis
  2. БCombined
  3. ВMechanical thrombectomy and recanalization
Show answer
Answer: A) Drug (pharmacological) thrombolysis

Systemic intravenous thrombolysis is the pharmacological dissolution of a thrombus using recombinant tissue plasminogen activator administration.

32

A stroke patient presents with predominant focal symptoms indicating involvement of the medial surface of the frontal and parietal lobes, including the paracentral lobule. Ischemia is most likely in the territory of which artery?

  1. АAnterior cerebral artery (a. cerebri anterior)
  2. БPosterior cerebral artery (a. cerebri posterior)
  3. ВBasilar artery (a. basilaris)
  4. ГMiddle cerebral artery (a. cerebri media)
Show answer
Answer: A) Anterior cerebral artery (a. cerebri anterior)

The anterior cerebral artery supplies the medial regions of the frontal and parietal lobes, including the paracentral lobule, which houses the cortical centers for voluntary motor function and sensation of the contralateral lower extremity.

33

Which artery gives rise to the deep striate branches (aa. striatae) supplying the subcortical nuclei and internal capsule?

  1. АMiddle cerebral artery (a. cerebri media)
  2. БAnterior cerebral artery (a. cerebri anterior)
  3. ВAnterior choroidal artery (a. choroidea anterior)
  4. ГPosterior cerebral artery (a. cerebri posterior)
Show answer
Answer: A) Middle cerebral artery (a. cerebri media)

In its proximal segment, the middle cerebral artery gives off the lateral and medial lenticulostriate arteries, which supply the internal capsule and basal ganglia.

Paroxysmal states: epilepsy and syncope

5 questions
34

Which type of seizures is characterized by electrical discharges involving a limited part of the cerebral cortex?

  1. AIdiopathic forms.
  2. BSymptomatic forms.
  3. CPartial (focal) seizures.
  4. DGeneralized seizures.
Show answer
Answer: C) Partial (focal) seizures.

Focal (partial) seizures occur due to a local epileptiform discharge in a limited area of the cerebral cortex of one hemisphere.

35

What EEG pattern is characteristic of typical absence seizures?

  1. AWidespread or focal pathological epileptiform activity
  2. BAbsence of epileptiform activity on the EEG during the interictal period
  3. CEpileptiform discharges in the form of spike-wave complexes at a frequency of about 3 Hz
  4. DEpileptiform activity (sharp and slow waves, paroxysmal activity)
Show answer
Answer: C) Epileptiform discharges in the form of spike-wave complexes at a frequency of about 3 Hz

The classical electroencephalographic pattern of typical absence seizures is generalized symmetrical 3 Hz spike-and-slow-wave discharges.

36

A 65-year-old patient with no prior history of seizures experiences a first-time generalized tonic-clonic seizure. What is the most likely cause at this age?

  1. ACerebrovascular diseases (symptomatic epilepsy)
  2. BAbsence seizures
  3. CFebrile seizures
  4. DEthanol intoxication and brain tumors
Show answer
Answer: A) Cerebrovascular diseases (symptomatic epilepsy)

In elderly patients (over 60 years old), the most frequent cause of newly onset epileptic seizures is cerebrovascular disease, such as previous strokes or chronic cerebral ischemia.

37

What does a high concentration of an AED (antiepileptic drug) indicate during therapeutic drug monitoring when there is no clinical response to the AED?

  1. AThe dose is selected individually: starting with a minimum dose → gradual increase to a medium dose → if ineffective, up to the maximum dose.
  2. BIt is used in case of partial effect from monotherapy.
  3. CIt is advisable to increase the dose to achieve a clinical effect.
  4. DThe drug is ineffective.
Show answer
Answer: D) The drug is ineffective.

If a high (therapeutic) blood concentration of an antiepileptic drug is achieved while seizures persist, this indicates that the drug is ineffective. In such situations, switching to another medication is required rather than further increasing the dose.

38

Which types of aura are listed as preceding loss of consciousness in generalized seizures?

  1. AIctal and postictal
  2. BMotor, sensory, autonomic, seizures with psychiatric disorders
  3. COlfactory, auditory, visual, paroxysmal changes in mental state
  4. DTonic-clonic, tonic, clonic, myoclonic
Show answer
Answer: C) Olfactory, auditory, visual, paroxysmal changes in mental state

Simple and complex partial seizures acting as an aura before generalized convulsive seizures include sensory, autonomic, motor, and psychic phenomena.

Facial pain

5 questions
39

Which of the following refers to associated motor manifestations in classic trigeminal neuralgia (TN)?

  1. AMeningeal syndrome
  2. BApraxia
  3. CPainful tic (tic douloureux): reflex contraction of the facial and masticatory muscles on the affected side
  4. DAphasia
Show answer
Answer: C) Painful tic (tic douloureux): reflex contraction of the facial and masticatory muscles on the affected side

In trigeminal neuralgia, intense pain is often accompanied by a reflex spasm of the facial muscles on the affected side, historically termed "tic douloureux".

40

A patient with trigeminal neuralgia: basic pharmacotherapy (carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine) is ineffective, and the patient refuses neurosurgical intervention (or prior surgery was ineffective). Which local injection therapy method is most indicated in this situation?

  1. AAlcohol blockades in the exit areas of the first, second, and third branches of the trigeminal nerve
  2. BSubcutaneous injections into trigger points on the side of the pain
  3. CAdministration of botulinum toxin (botulinum therapy)
Show answer
Answer: C) Administration of botulinum toxin (botulinum therapy)

For pharmacoresistant trigeminal neuralgia when neurosurgical treatment is not feasible, current clinical guidelines indicate local injections of botulinum toxin type A.

41

Which CNS structures are involved in the pathogenesis of trigeminal neuralgia (TN)?

  1. AOculomotor nerve nuclei, pontine gaze center, lateral lemniscus
  2. BRed nucleus, substantia nigra, cerebellum
  3. CSpinal and sensory nuclei of the trigeminal nerve, thalamus, primary and secondary somatosensory cortex
  4. DHippocampus, amygdala, olfactory cortex
Show answer
Answer: C>Spinal and sensory nuclei of the trigeminal nerve, thalamus, primary and secondary somatosensory cortex

The pathogenesis of trigeminal neuralgia involves hyperactivation of structures within the facial nociceptive system: impulses are conducted from the trigeminal nuclei in the brainstem to the thalamus and further to the somatosensory cortex, generating the pain syndrome.

42

A patient presents with clinical features of classic idiopathic trigeminal neuralgia. Where is the most likely anatomical lesion/compression site causing the pain attacks?

  1. ALocal pathological processes in the area of the sinuses, teeth, jaw, or pharynx
  2. BSclerotic plaque in the area of the trigeminal nerve root (in multiple sclerosis)
  3. CTrigeminal nerve root at its zone of exit from the pons (root entry zone)
  4. DAcoustic neuroma
Show answer
Answer: C) Trigeminal nerve root at its zone of exit from the pons

Classical (idiopathic) trigeminal neuralgia is most commonly caused by neurovascular conflict. Pain attacks occur due to compression of the nerve root by a blood vessel loop at the zone of its exit from the pons.

43

A 35-year-old patient presenting with facial pain notes bilateral localization of pain paroxysms and persistence of facial pain during the interictal period. What is the most probable cause of trigeminal neuralgia?

  1. APost-traumatic neuralgia
  2. BClassical idiopathic neuralgia (compression of the root by the superior cerebellar artery)
  3. CNeuralgia secondary to multiple sclerosis
  4. DNerve compression by an arteriovenous malformation (AVM)
Show answer
Answer: C) Neuralgia secondary to multiple sclerosis

The bilateral nature of pain and the persistent interictal algic component are atypical for classical idiopathic neuralgia, but are frequently observed in demyelinating diseases of the CNS.

Visual disturbances. Optic nerve lesions

5 questions
44

In a patient, a unilateral lesion of retrochiasmal structures is accompanied by homonymous complete or partial hemianopia of the opposite visual field. Which lesion localization corresponds to this syndrome?

  1. AOptic chiasm (chiasma opticum)
  2. BNormal perimetry (physiological contours without defects)
  3. COptic tract (tractus opticus)
Show answer
Answer: C) Optic tract (tractus opticus)

The optic tract is a retrochiasmal structure containing fibers from the outer half of the ipsilateral retina and the inner half of the contralateral retina. Its unilateral damage leads to the loss of opposite visual fields in both eyes (homonymous hemianopia).

45

Which form of visual field defect is most characteristic when a pathological process is localized in the chiasm region?

  1. ABitemporal hemianopia (loss of the outer/temporal halves of the visual fields of both eyes)
  2. BHomonymous complete or partial hemianopia of the opposite visual field (contralateral hemianopia)
  3. CCentral scotoma (loss of the central part of the visual field)
Show answer
Answer: A) Bitemporal hemianopia (loss of the outer/temporal halves of the visual fields of both eyes)

In the region of the optic chiasm, crossing fibers from the nasal halves of the retinas are damaged, which collect information from the temporal visual fields of both eyes.

46

Which visual field defect is most characteristic when a pathological process is localized in the chiasm region?

  1. ACentral scotoma
  2. BHomonymous complete or partial hemianopia of the opposite visual field (contralateral hemianopia)
  3. CBitemporal hemianopia
Show answer
Answer: C) Bitemporal hemianopia

In the optic chiasm region, fibers from the inner (nasal) halves of the retinas cross; therefore, when it is damaged, the outer (temporal) visual fields are lost on both sides.

47

According to perimetry data, a patient has a loss of the outer (temporal) halves of the visual fields of both eyes (bitemporal hemianopia). Where is the pathological process most likely located?

  1. AOptic chiasm (chiasma opticum)
  2. BOptic tract (tractus opticus)
  3. CLateral geniculate body (corpus geniculatum laterale)
  4. DVisual cortex (cortex visualis)
Show answer
Answer: A) Optic chiasm (chiasma opticum)

Bitemporal hemianopia occurs when the medial part of the optic chiasm is damaged, where crossing nerve fibers from the nasal halves of the retinas of both eyes pass. These fibers are responsible for perceiving the outer (temporal) visual fields.

48

Which structure provides subjective perception and conscious awareness of visual information?

  1. APrimary visual cortex
  2. BLateral geniculate body (thalamic nucleus)
  3. COptic radiation (Gratiolet's radiations)
  4. DSecondary visual cortical areas
Show answer
Answer: D) Secondary visual cortical areas

The primary visual cortex performs only basic signal processing, whereas the synthesis, pattern recognition, and conscious awareness of visual information occur in the secondary (associative) visual areas.

Infectious diseases of the nervous system

2 questions
49

Which sign is more consistent with tuberculous meningitis rather than viral (serous) meningitis?

  1. ASlow onset: the first 2–3 weeks show a gradual increase in headache, fatigue, and low-grade fever
  2. BIncubation period of 2–7 days
  3. CDisease duration typically 10–14 days
  4. DMeningeal signs appear on the 2nd–3rd day
Show answer
Answer: A) Slow onset: the first 2–3 weeks show a gradual increase in headache, fatigue, and low-grade fever

Tuberculous meningitis is characterized by a subacute, granulomatous nature of inflammation with a gradual increase in symptoms over several weeks, unlike the acute course of viral meningitides.

50

Which of the listed signs is most indicative of Lyme disease (borreliosis) rather than transverse myelitis?

  1. ATract-type sensory disturbance on the trunk
  2. BAn enlarging annular erythema forms at the bite site
  3. CMRI: T2 signal change spanning 2–3 segments
  4. DLower central paraparesis
Show answer
Answer: B) An enlarging annular erythema forms at the bite site

Migrating annular erythema at the tick bite site is a pathognomonic early clinical marker of Ixodes borreliosis. The other listed symptoms are characteristic of spinal cord damage (myelitis).

Frequently asked questions

Where do these neurology questions come from?

From the WhiteCoat Pro "Neurology" course question bank — the same one students use to prepare for classes. The bank contains a total of 2,102 questions; here are 50 across 10 sections with answers and brief explanations.

Are these tests suitable for colloquiums and exams?

The questions are compiled according to the medical school curriculum and cover the main sections of the subject. We do not guarantee a match with the exam questions of any specific university: use the test to identify gaps, and review weak topics using a reference book or within the course.

How to solve: look at the answers immediately or take the test first?

First, go through the practice mode — choosing an option without hints better reinforces the material. The answers and explanations under each question on the page will be useful for reviewing mistakes.

Where to get the rest of the questions?

The complete neurology question bank with error analyses, study guides for each topic, and an AI tutor are available in the "Neurology" course.

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