Vector-borne infections
17 questionsThe term "Status praesens" corresponds to which section of the case history:
- AHistory of present illness
- BPast medical history
- CExamination plan
- DObjective status (current condition upon examination)
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The term "status praesens" translates from Latin as "present state" and in the case history denotes the data of the patient's objective physical examination at the time of the visit.
The patient has pronounced tongue tremor and deviation; cannot fully and freely protrude the tongue, movements are jerky, the tongue does not extend past the teeth/lips (Govorov-Godelier sign). Which nerve lesion is most likely?
- ACN XII (hypoglossal nerve)
- BCN VII (facial nerve)
- CCN XI (accessory nerve)
- DCN X (vagus nerve)
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Motor innervation of the tongue muscles is provided by the hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII), therefore its lesion or involvement of its nuclei causes deviation, tremor, and restricted mobility of the tongue.
IFA (indirect immunofluorescence assay) in the examination plan for Mediterranean spotted fever is used to diagnose:
- AHFRS (hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome)
- Btick-borne rickettsioses and typhus group rickettsioses
- Cmalaria
- Dsecondary syphilis
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Mediterranean spotted fever is caused by Rickettsia conorii; therefore, IFA is used for its serological confirmation, detecting specific antibodies against the causative agents of tick-borne spotted fevers and other rickettsioses.
Facial expression muscles (upper and lower) are innervated by:
- AOculomotor nerve (CN III)
- BAbducens nerve (CN VI)
- CFacial nerve (CN VII)
- DTrigeminal nerve (CN V)
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Motor fibers of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) provide innervation to all facial expression muscles.
Rickettsia prowazekii are released by lice into the environment:
- Aonly with feces
- Bwith saliva during blood feeding
- Cwhen the louse is crushed on the skin
- Dwith urine
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The epidemic typhus pathogen multiplies in the louse intestinal epithelium and is released into the environment exclusively with the insect's excreta. Human infection occurs when infected feces are rubbed into skin scratch marks.
In brucellosis, the primary specific serological test is:
- AIHA
- BBurnet skin test
- CWright agglutination test
- DCFT
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The Wright test (standard tube agglutination test) is the classical and primary quantitative serological method for diagnosing brucellosis, confirming the presence of specific antibodies in blood serum.
The patient presents with ptosis, mydriasis, divergent strabismus (eye deviated outward), impaired convergence and pupillary light reflex, and restricted upward and inward eye movements. Which nerve lesion is most likely?
- ACN III — oculomotor nerve
- BCN VI — abducens nerve
- CCN V — trigeminal nerve (motor branch)
- DCN IV — trochlear nerve
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The oculomotor nerve innervates the levator palpebrae superioris muscle, as well as the medial, superior, and inferior rectus, and inferior oblique muscles of the eye, paralysis of which leads to characteristic ophthalmoplegia.
The main route of human infection with tick-borne encephalitis (TBE) virus:
- Acontact (when crushing a tick)
- Bvector-borne (via the bite of an infected tick)
- Cairborne droplet
- Alimentarily (via raw milk)
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Ixodid ticks are the main natural reservoir and vector of tick-borne encephalitis virus, transmitting the infection through their bite.
Immunological testing of blood serum in suspected Lyme disease (ixodid tick-borne borreliosis) includes:
- AIndirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA) and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) with a borrelial diagnosticum
- BPCR for tick-borne encephalitis virus and Huddleson reaction
- CMantoux test and Koch's test
- DWassermann reaction (RW) and Wright's test
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ELISA and IFA are standardly used for the serological diagnosis of Lyme disease to detect specific antibodies.
The combination of a primary affect and regional lymphadenitis in Mediterranean spotted fever is:
- AAn early specific primary symptom complex
- BAn obligatory sign of meningeal syndrome
- CA late non-specific symptom complex
- DA sign characteristic only of the aerogenic route of infection
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The primary affect (tache noire at the tick bite site) combined with regional lymphadenitis forms the primary complex, which is an early and highly specific sign of Mediterranean spotted fever.
Bell's sign in n. facialis (CN VII) palsy manifests as the fact that when attempting to close the eye:
- Athe eyeball deviates outward, resulting in divergent strabismus
- Bthe eyeball shifts upward, the iris disappears under the upper eyelid, and the palpebral fissure remains open
- Cthe pupil dilates (mydriasis) and there is no reaction to light
- Dthe eyeball shifts downward, resulting in diplopia on downward gaze
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Peripheral facial nerve palsy causes lagophthalmos (incomplete eyelid closure), making the physiological upward movement of the eyeball visible when attempting to close the eyes.
When n. glossopharyngeus (IX) and n. vagus (X) are damaged, the uvula deviates toward:
- Athe healthy side
- Bremains on the midline
- Cthe affected side
- Ddeviates alternately to both sides
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Unilateral vagus nerve palsy causes paresis of the soft palate muscles on the affected side, so during phonation, the healthy muscles pull the uvula toward their side.
In the human body, the life cycle of malaria parasites undergoes:
- Aschizogony (asexual developmental cycle)
- Bgametocytogony only
- Cexoerythrocytic schizogony only
- Dsporogony (sexual developmental cycle)
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Humans are the intermediate hosts for the malaria parasite, meaning asexual reproduction of the parasite occurs in the human body (tissue and erythrocytic schizogony), whereas the sexual cycle (sporogony) takes place in the mosquito.
Paradoxical urinary retention is designated by the term:
- Aischuria paradoxa
- Banuria paradoxa
- Cdysuria paradoxa
- Dpolyuria paradoxa
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The term "ischuria paradoxa" (paradoxical ischuria) refers to a condition in which the bladder is overfilled, spontaneous urination is impossible, yet urine constantly dribbles out involuntarily.
The causative agents of ixodid tick-borne borreliosis (ITBB) have natural resistance to:
- AFluoroquinolones
- B2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporins
- CMacrolides
- DTetracyclines
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Borrelia species are naturally resistant to fluoroquinolones; therefore, drugs of this group are not used to treat Lyme disease. The drugs of choice are tetracyclines, penicillins, and cephalosporins.
Upward, inward, and partial downward movements of the eyeball are provided by (when damaged — ptosis, mydriasis, divergent strabismus):
- ATrochlear nerve (CN IV)
- BTrigeminal nerve (CN V)
- CAbducens nerve (CN VI)
- DOculomotor nerve (CN III)
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The oculomotor nerve innervates most extraocular muscles, the levator palpebrae superioris muscle, and the sphincter pupillae; therefore, its lesion causes ptosis, mydriasis, and divergent strabismus.
In the mixed (cardiac and articular) variant of Lyme disease, serological testing is performed on:
- AUrine and saliva
- BPleural fluid and ascitic fluid
- CBlood serum and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
- DBlood serum and synovial fluid
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In joint involvement (Lyme arthritis), anti-borrelia antibodies are locally synthesized within the joint; therefore, both blood serum and synovial fluid are examined to confirm the diagnosis.
Infections of the integumentary system and sepsis
17 questionsSpecific receptors for rabies virus (RABV) adsorption are:
- ANicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) of nervous tissue
- Bβ1-adrenoreceptors of the myocardium
- CSmooth muscle muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
- DInsulin receptors
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Rabies virus exhibits marked neurotropism and penetrates peripheral nerve endings by binding to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junctions.
A rabies patient exhibits priapism and spontaneous ejaculation. Damage to which brain structure is most likely associated with these symptoms?
- AThalamus
- BAmygdala
- CSubstantia nigra of the midbrain
- DCerebellum
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Rabies virus is tropic to structures of the limbic system. Damage to the amygdala leads to disinhibition of autonomic and behavioral responses, which may manifest as hypersexuality, priapism, and spontaneous ejaculation.
"Rabies tubercles" (Babes nodules) represent:
- Apetechial hemorrhages in the meninges
- Baccumulations of microglial and lymphoid cells around dead neurons and small vessels
- Ccytoplasmic inclusions in hippocampal neurons
- Dperivascular infiltrates in the salivary glands
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Babes nodules are focal accumulations of microglial cells and lymphocytes forming around dead neurons during the development of viral encephalitis. Cytoplasmic inclusions within the neurons themselves are called Negri bodies.
A patient developed signs of central nervous system involvement a few days after an animal bite in the lower leg. It is known that the rabies virus reaches the CNS retrogradely along motor neuron axons. Which motor proteins provide this centripetal transport?
- ATubulin
- BDyneins (minus-end motor proteins)
- CKinesins (plus-end motor proteins)
- DMyosins
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Retrograde axonal transport (from the periphery to the neuron cell body) is carried out by motor proteins called dyneins, which move toward the minus end of microtubules. It is this mechanism that the rabies virus utilizes to invade the CNS.
A patient with viral encephalitis developed bulbar syndrome: dysphagia, dysarthria, hoarseness, and respiratory disorders. Damage to which cranial nerves is most likely?
- ACranial nerves V and VII
- BCranial nerves IX, X, XI, XII
- CCranial nerves III, IV, VI
- DCranial nerves I and II
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Bulbar syndrome occurs when the nuclei or roots of the glossopharyngeal (IX), vagus (X), accessory (XI), and hypoglossal (XII) nerves located in the medulla oblongata (bulb) are damaged.
The main virulence factor of GAS (Group A Streptococcus):
- ALipoteichoic acids
- BPeptidoglycan (mucopeptide)
- CStreptokinase
- DM protein
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M protein is the major surface antigen and virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes (GAS), which inhibits phagocytosis and ensures adhesion to the epithelium.
Which cranial nerves (nuclei) are affected in rabies, which is associated with spasmodic muscle contraction during hydrophobia?
- ANucleus ambiguus
- BDorsal root ganglia
- CNuclei of the vagus (X), glossopharyngeal (IX), and hypoglossal (XII) nerves
- DMotor nuclei of cranial nerves, anterior horn cells of the spinal cord
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Rabies affects the nuclei of the medulla oblongata responsible for swallowing and breathing, leading to muscle spasms when attempting to drink (hydrophobia).
Which diagnostic criterion makes it possible to distinguish lyssophobia from true rabies?
- ANeutrophilic leukocytosis in the hemogram
- BPresence of hydrophobia and aerophobia with paroxysms
- CUnder anesthesia, all clinical symptoms completely disappear
- DPronounced sialorrhea and bulbar disorders
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Lyssaophobia is a neurosis-like condition (fear of contracting rabies) in which psychogenic symptoms disappear under anesthesia, unlike the organic nervous system damage seen in true rabies.
A patient presents with a pinkish-red/purplish-red erythema on the fingers spreading to the hand, with edges brighter than the center, mild edema, and possible vesicles. Fever, intoxication, and regional lymphadenopathy are absent. History includes microtraumas while handling meat/fish. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- AErysipelas
- BHand phlegmon
- CContact dermatitis
- DErysipeloid
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Erysipeloid is characterized by the development of local erythema on the hands following microtraumas from contact with infected meat or fish, while marked intoxication and fever are usually absent.
Involvement of the nuclei of which cranial nerves is associated with convulsive muscle spasms during hydrophobia in rabies?
- ANn. trigeminus (V), facialis (VII), abducens (VI)
- BNn. vagus (X), glossopharyngeus (IX), hypoglossus (XII)
- CNn. olfactorius (I), opticus (II), vestibulocochlearis (VIII)
- DNn. oculomotorius (III), trochlearis (IV), abducens (VI)
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The rabies virus affects the nuclei of the bulbar group of cranial nerves (IX, X, XII), leading to painful reflex spasms of the pharyngeal and respiratory muscles upon swallowing attempts.
A patient with bulbar poliomyelitis presents with facial asymmetry, smoothing of the nasolabial fold, and inability to tightly close the eye on the affected side. Involvement of which nerve is most likely?
- AFacial nerve (VII cranial nerve)
- BGlossopharyngeal nerve (IX cranial nerve)
- CHypoglossal nerve (XII cranial nerve)
- DAccessory nerve (XI cranial nerve)
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Smoothing of the nasolabial fold and lagophthalmos (inability to close the eye) are classic signs of peripheral palsy of the facial muscles innervated by the facial nerve.
Erysipelas recurrences are caused by:
- AAppearance of cross-immunity to strains differing in M-protein
- BDevelopment of persistent post-infection immunity
- CReversion of streptococcal L-forms into bacterial forms
- DElimination of streptococcus from the dermis followed by focus sterilization
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The causative agent of erysipelas (group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus) is capable of transforming into L-forms that persist in skin macrophages. When immunity declines, they revert to the initial bacterial forms, causing recurrent inflammation.
A patient with sepsis rapidly developed hypotension, hypoperfusion, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome; purulent metastases are absent. What form of sepsis should be suspected?
- ABacterial (infective) endocarditis
- BSepticemia (infectious-toxic shock)
- CSepticopyemia
- DChronic sepsis
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Septicemia is characterized by pronounced intoxication, a hyperergic reaction of the body, and rapid development of infectious-toxic shock without the formation of secondary purulent foci. In contrast, septicopyemia proceeds with the formation of metastatic abscesses in various organs.
Eicosanoids are synthesized from:
- Acholesterol
- Bglucose
- Clinoleic acid
- Darachidonic acid
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Eicosanoids (prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes) are formed via enzymatic oxidation of 20-carbon polyunsaturated fatty acids. The main precursor of these mediators in the human body is arachidonic acid.
In the vast majority of cases, sepsis is caused by:
- Aobligate intracellular parasites
- Bbacteria—opportunistic extracellular parasites
- Cviruses as independent causative agents
- DCandida fungi as the primary cause
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The main etiological cause of sepsis is opportunistic bacterial microflora (staphylococci, streptococci, enterobacteria, Pseudomonas aeruginosa). These microorganisms are extracellular parasites and cause generalized infection when immune reactivity is reduced.
A patient in the paralytic stage of rabies presents with dilated pupils and a lack of pupillary light reflex. Involvement of which nerve is most likely?
- AOculomotor nerve (n. oculomotorius, III cranial nerve)
- BFacial nerve (n. facialis, VII cranial nerve)
- CTrigeminal nerve (n. trigeminus, V cranial nerve)
- DTrochlear nerve (n. trochlearis, IV cranial nerve)
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Parasympathetic fibers responsible for pupillary constriction and its reaction to light run within the oculomotor nerve.
For sepsis with renal involvement (urinary tract infection), the suspected etiology includes:
- ABacteroides spp., Streptococcus spp. (excluding Enterobacteriaceae)
- БStaphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, Clostridium spp.
- ВEnterobacteriaceae (E. coli, Klebsiella spp., Enterobacter spp., Proteus spp.), Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterococcus spp., Candida spp.
- ГStreptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae
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Urosepsis is most commonly caused by gram-negative enteric bacteria (Escherichia coli, Proteus, Klebsiella), as well as enterococci, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Candida species.
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Viral hepatitis and HIV
16 questionsWhich cells act as a reservoir and carrier for HIV, maintaining viability for a long time after infection?
- Аneutrophilic granulocytes
- Бplatelets
- Вmonocytes, tissue macrophages, and dendritic cells
- Гerythrocytes
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Monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells express CD4 receptors on their surface, but unlike T-lymphocytes, they do not die when the virus replicates, becoming a long-term tissue reservoir for it.
The drug of choice for etiotropic therapy of microsporidiosis is:
- АAlbendazole
- БNystatin
- ВLoperamide
- ГMetronidazole
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Albendazole is the primary drug for the treatment of intestinal and disseminated forms of microsporidiosis, as it effectively disrupts tubulin polymerization in the parasite's cells.
AIDS-defining malignancies include:
- АProstate cancer
- БKaposi's sarcoma
- ВLung cancer
- ГSkin melanoma
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Kaposi's sarcoma, associated with human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8), is included in the standard list of AIDS-defining conditions along with non-Hodgkin lymphomas and invasive cervical cancer.
gp41 (transmembrane glycoprotein) within the HIV-1 envelope spike forms:
- АCapsid shell (p24)
- БThe spike "cap"
- ВThe spike "stem"
- ГMatrix layer (p17)
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The transmembrane glycoprotein gp41 penetrates the lipid envelope of the virion and forms the "stem" (stalk) of the HIV spike, to which the surface glycoprotein gp120 is non-covalently attached.
The most informative method when VZV meningoencephalitis is suspected is:
- АVirus isolation in human embryonic cell culture
- БSmear-imprint microscopy (Romanowsky–Giemsa stain)
- ВCSF PCR
- ГSerum IFA
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Detection of Varicella Zoster virus DNA in cerebrospinal fluid by PCR is the gold standard and the most sensitive diagnostic method for viral CNS involvement.
Cholestyramine is used in cholestasis for:
- АEnhancing pancreatic enzyme secretion
- БBinding bile acids in the intestine and enhancing their excretion
- ВSuppressing HAV replication
- ГStimulating hepatic bile acid synthesis
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Cholestyramine is an ion-exchange resin that binds bile acids in the intestinal lumen, preventing their reabsorption. This helps reduce blood bile acid concentration and relieves pruritus in cholestasis.
LTR (long terminal repeat) in the HIV genome is:
- АAn indirect immunofluorescence assay method
- БChemokine coreceptors required for viral entry into the target cell
- ВCirculating immune complexes (antigen-antibody) elevated during infection progression
- ГLong terminal repeats involved in viral DNA integration into the host cell genome and transcription
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LTR sequences (long terminal repeats) contain promoters, enhancers, and polyadenylation signals that ensure the transcription of viral genes and their integration into the host genome via viral integrase.
An HIV-positive patient presents with an itchy, erythematous papular rash; itching worsens at night, lesions often appear in pairs ("stitching"), and thin, tortuous burrows 3–15 mm long are visible on the skin. Which pathogen is the most likely cause?
- АDemodex folliculorum
- БPityrosporum ovale
- ВStaphylococcus aureus
- ГSarcoptes scabiei (itch mite)
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Characteristic nocturnal pruritus, paired arrangement of rash elements, and the presence of serpiginous burrows ("stitches") are pathognomonic for scabies caused by Sarcoptes scabiei.
Pneumocystis jirovecii is the causative agent of:
- Apneumocystis pneumonia
- Batypical mycobacteriosis (MAC infection)
- Coral candidiasis
- Dcytomegalovirus retinitis
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Pneumocystis jirovecii is an atypical fungus tropic to the alveolar epithelium of the lungs, causing opportunistic pneumocystis pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals.
Fulminant hepatic failure in drug-induced liver injury can be triggered by:
- Acaptopril
- Bparacetamol
- Cco-trimoxazole
- Dtolbutamide
Show answer
Paracetamol overdose depletes hepatic glutathione stores and leads to the accumulation of a toxic metabolite (NAPQI), resulting in massive hepatocyte necrosis and fulminant hepatic failure.
Which enzymes are excretory (markers of biliary tract damage) in cholestatic syndrome?
- AAlkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
- BALT and AST
- CAmylase and lipase
- DCreatine phosphokinase (CPK) and LDH
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Alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transferase are localized on the apical membrane of hepatocytes and the biliary epithelium; therefore, their activity in the blood increases sharply when bile outflow is impaired.
The infectious stage of Cryptosporidium excreted into the environment with feces is:
- AOocysts
- BTrophozoites
- CGametocytes
- DMerozoites
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Cryptosporidiosis agents are excreted in the feces as thick-walled oocysts that already contain sporozoites and are immediately capable of infecting new hosts.
A patient has recurrent genital herpes. In which nerve ganglia is latent persistence of HSV-2 most likely?
- ACervical sympathetic ganglia
- BTrigeminal ganglion
- CFacial nerve ganglion (geniculate ganglion)
- DSacral ganglia
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Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) is tropic to the mucous membranes of the genitals and, following primary infection, retrogradely migrates along sensory nerve fibers. Latent persistence of the virus occurs in the sacral ganglia innervating this region.
Which HEV genotypes affect humans exclusively (anthroponotic)?
- Agenotype 1 only
- Bgenotypes 1, 2, and 3
- Cgenotypes 3 and 4
- Dgenotypes 1 and 2
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Hepatitis E virus genotypes 1 and 2 are strictly anthroponotic and are transmitted primarily via the fecal-oral route through contaminated water. Genotypes 3 and 4 can infect animals (pigs, wild boars) and cause zoonotic infections.
Confirmation of a positive HIV test result is carried out by:
- AImmunoblotting
- BELISA
- CIFA
- DCFT
Show answer
Immunoblotting detects antibodies to specific individual viral proteins, which reliably rules out false-positive results from screening ELISA.
Analysis of the HIV life cycle reveals that after attachment to the target cell, physical fusion of the viral envelope with the cell membrane occurs, followed by the penetration of the nucleocapsid into the cytoplasm. Which HIV protein is responsible for this stage?
- ATat (p14)
- Bgp41
- CRev (p19)
- Dgp120 (SU)
Show answer
The glycoprotein gp41 is a transmembrane viral protein that, after gp120 binds to receptors, undergoes a conformational change and ensures the fusion of the viral envelope with the cell membrane.
Frequently asked questions
Where do these infectious disease questions come from?
From the WhiteCoat Pro "Infectious Diseases" course question bank — the same one students use to prepare for classes. The bank contains a total of 901 questions; this set includes 50 across 3 sections with answers and brief explanations.
Are these tests suitable for colloquiums and exams?
The questions are compiled according to the medical school curriculum and cover the main sections of the subject. We do not guarantee a match with the exam questions of any specific university: use the test to identify gaps, and review weak topics using a reference book or within the course.
How to solve: look at the answers immediately or take the test first?
First, go through the practice mode — choosing an option without hints better reinforces the material. The answers and explanations under each question on the page will be useful for reviewing mistakes.
Where to get the rest of the questions?
The complete infectious diseases question bank with error analyses, study guides for each topic, and an AI tutor are available in the "Infectious Diseases" course.
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