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Histology Practice Questions with Answers: 50 Questions for Exam Preparation

50 histology test questions from the WhiteCoat Pro course bank: correct answers and brief explanations are provided below each question. Practice online using the simulator or browse the list below — questions are organized by course sections.

Questions on page50 with answers
Course sections10
Total questions in the bank5,814
Test duration≈ 30 min
Simulator: take the test onlineSelect an option to instantly see the correct answer and explanation. Your result will be saved in this browser.

Germ cells, fertilization, cleavage, blastula

5 questions
1

What is the main feature of zygote cleavage?

  1. ACells grow but do not divide
  2. BThe volume of the embryo does not increase
  3. CThe volume of the embryo doubles with each division
Show answer
Answer: B) The volume of the embryo does not increase

During cleavage, mitotic divisions occur without cell growth phases; therefore, the resulting blastomeres become smaller with each division while the overall volume of the embryo remains constant.

2

Which egg envelope in birds and reptiles functions as a water reservoir and provides antibacterial protection?

  1. AVitelline membrane
  2. BShell
  3. CAlbumen layer (egg white)
  4. DFibrous tunic
Show answer
Answer: C) Albumen layer (egg white)

The albumen layer (tertiary egg envelope) contains a large reserve of water necessary for embryo development, as well as the enzyme lysozyme, which exhibits strong antibacterial activity.

3

What is formed upon the completion of the second meiotic division by the oocyte?

  1. AZygote with a tetraploid chromosome set
  2. BFemale pronucleus with a haploid chromosome set
  3. CMale pronucleus with a diploid chromosome set
  4. DFirst polar body
Show answer
Answer: B) Female pronucleus with a haploid chromosome set

The second meiotic division is completed only after a sperm penetrates the oocyte, resulting in the formation of a mature ovum whose nucleus becomes the haploid female pronucleus. The second polar body is also extruded in the process.

4

What type of egg cell, based on yolk content and distribution, is characteristic of mammals, including humans?

  1. APrimary oligolecithal and isolecithal
  2. BSecondary oligolecithal and isolecithal
  3. CPolylecithal and extremely telolecithal
  4. DPolylecithal and moderately telolecithal
Show answer
Answer: B) Secondary oligolecithal and isolecithal

Due to the evolution of intrauterine development and placental nutrition, mammalian eggs have secondarily lost yolk reserves, becoming secondary oligolecithal and isolecithal.

5

Which oocyte is released from the ovary during ovulation?

  1. APrimary oocyte
  2. BSecondary oocyte
  3. CMature ovum (tertiary oocyte)
Show answer
Answer: B) Secondary oocyte

During ovulation, the follicle ruptures and a secondary oocyte, arrested at metaphase of the second meiotic division, is released into the peritoneal cavity.

Early Stages of Human Intrauterine Development

5 questions
6

What is the structure of yolk granules?

  1. AThey lack a membrane.
  2. BThey consist of microtubules.
  3. CThey are surrounded by a membrane.
Show answer
Answer: C) They are surrounded by a membrane.

Yolk granules are intracellular inclusions bounded by a single lipoprotein membrane and containing nutrient reserves.

7

Into which definitive cavities does the coelom divide during the 2nd month of development?

  1. APericardial, pleural, and peritoneal
  2. BPleural, peritoneal, and spinal
  3. CPericardial, pleural, and retroperitoneal
Show answer
Answer: A) Pericardial, pleural, and peritoneal

During embryogenesis, the intraembryonic coelom is divided by partitions into three types of serous cavities: the pericardial, two pleural, and the peritoneal cavity.

8

How is the viability of the embryo maintained during the cleavage period?

  1. ADue to an increase in the total volume of the embryo
  2. BDue to the intake of nutrients from the outside through the membrane
  3. CDue to intracellular reserves
Show answer
Answer: C) Due to intracellular reserves

During the cleavage period, the embryo is located inside the zona pellucida and does not increase in size, while its nutrition is provided primarily by yolk inclusions accumulated in the cytoplasm of the ovum.

9

At which stage of development does DNA methylation of imprinted (Impr) genes occur?

  1. ADuring somatic cell replication
  2. BAfter fertilization in the zygote
  3. CAt the gametogenesis (meiosis) stage
Show answer
Answer: C) At the gametogenesis (meiosis) stage

Specific DNA methylation of genomic imprinting genes occurs de novo during gametogenesis separately in the male and female germlines.

10

What happens to the pronephros during the 4th week of development?

  1. AThey fuse with the mesonephroi
  2. BThey regress
  3. CThey actively develop, forming tubules and glomeruli
Show answer
Answer: B) They regress

The pronephros in the human embryo is a vestigial organ that forms in the third week of embryogenesis and completely regresses by the end of the fourth week.

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Histological research technique

5 questions
11

What is the nature of indifferent dyes?

  1. AWater-soluble substances
  2. BHydrophilic substances (water-soluble)
  3. CAmphiphilic substances
  4. DHydrophobic lipophilic substances (water-insoluble)
Show answer
Answer: D) Hydrophobic lipophilic substances (water-insoluble)

Indifferent dyes (e.g., Sudan III) do not form ionic bonds with tissue structures, but physically dissolve in lipids due to their hydrophobic and lipophilic nature.

12

What term is used in electron microscopy instead of section "staining"?

  1. AContrasting
  2. BImpregnation
  3. CFixation
  4. DIncrustation
Show answer
Answer: A) Contrasting

To visualize structures in electron microscopy, heavy metal salts (osmium, lead, uranium) are used; they scatter the electron beam and create electron-dense areas, a process known as contrasting.

13

What is the recommended tissue sample volume when harvesting material for electron microscopy?

  1. AAbout 0.1 mm³
  2. BAbout 5 mm³
  3. CAbout 1 cm³
  4. DAbout 1 mm³
Show answer
Answer: D) About 1 mm³

For rapid and uniform fixation of the material (e.g., with glutaraldehyde and osmium tetroxide), tissue pieces must be very small, usually not exceeding 1 mm³ in size.

14

How is section rehydration performed after deparaffinization?

  1. AProcessing through a "series" of alcohols with decreasing concentration (100% → 60%), then water for 2–5 minutes
  2. BDirect placement in water without alcohols
  3. CProcessing through a "series" of alcohols with increasing concentration (60% → 100%), then xylene
  4. DProcessing through xylene, then directly into the stain without washing
Show answer
Answer: A) Processing through a "series" of alcohols with decreasing concentration (100% → 60%), then water for 2–5 minutes

To saturate the tissue with water after paraffin removal, alcohols with progressively decreasing concentrations are used, which prevents drastic structural deformation.

15

How is tissue dehydration performed prior to paraffin embedding?

  1. AProcessing through water only, followed by cooling
  2. BProcessing through a "series" of alcohols with decreasing concentration (from 100% to 70%)
  3. CProcessing through a "series" of alcohols with increasing concentration (from 70% to 100%)
  4. DDirect placement of moist tissue into paraffin without intermediate solvents
Show answer
Answer: C) Processing through a "series" of alcohols with increasing concentration (from 70% to 100%)

For the gentle removal of water without severe deformation and shrinkage of structures, tissue pieces are sequentially passed through ethanol solutions with gradually increasing concentrations.

Skeletal Connective Tissues

5 questions
16

Which type of cartilage tissue is the most common?

  1. AElastic cartilage tissue
  2. BFibrocartilage tissue
  3. CHyaline cartilage tissue
Show answer
Answer: C) Hyaline cartilage tissue

Hyaline cartilage forms the articular surfaces of most bones, the cartilages of the respiratory tract, rib cartilages, and constitutes the basis of the embryonic skeleton, making it the most widespread type of cartilage tissue in the body.

17

In which of the following structures does hyaline cartilage function as an epiphyseal growth plate during the period of organism development?

  1. AMetaphyses of tubular bones
  2. БLaryngeal cartilages
  3. ВArticular surfaces of bones
  4. ГCostal cartilages
Show answer
Answer: А) Metaphysis of tubular bones

The metaphyseal (epiphyseal) cartilage plate consists of hyaline cartilage and ensures longitudinal growth of tubular bones due to continuous chondrocyte proliferation.

18

What are interstitial lamellae of compact bone tissue?

  1. АConcentric layers of lamellae forming a new osteon
  2. БRemnants of old, partially destroyed osteons from previous generations
  3. ВLamellae lining the wall of the central canal of the osteon
  4. ГPeripheral lamellae bounding the compact substance externally
Show answer
Answer: Б) Remnants of old, partially destroyed osteons from previous generations

During bone tissue remodeling, old osteons are partially degraded by osteoclasts, and their surviving fragments lie between new osteons as interstitial lamellae.

19

Which property of proteoglycan aggregates provides the shock-absorbing properties of cartilage tissue?

  1. АTurgor and elasticity due to bound water
  2. БPermeability to low-molecular-weight metabolites
  3. ВPresence of a link protein between subunits
Show answer
Answer: А) Turgor and elasticity due to bound water

Negatively charged glycosaminoglycans within proteoglycans attract sodium ions and water, generating high hydrostatic pressure (turgor) that resists cartilage compression.

20

What type of bone tissue is formed as a result of primary bone trabeculae development?

  1. АLamellar bone tissue
  2. БWoven-bone tissue
  3. ВCompact bone tissue
Show answer
Answer: Б) Woven-bone tissue

In direct osteogenesis, primary bone trabeculae consist of immature woven-bone tissue, which is remodeled into lamellar bone only at subsequent stages.

Nervous tissue: nerve endings and synapses

5 questions
21

What mechanism of neurotransmitter release is characteristic of non-synaptic interneuronal contacts?

  1. АThe neurotransmitter is transported directly to the neighboring cell via gap junctions
  2. БThe neurotransmitter is released into a restricted synaptic cleft toward a specific cell
  3. ВThe neurotransmitter is released into the intercellular space
Show answer
Answer: В) The neurotransmitter is released into the intercellular space

In non-synaptic transmission (volume neurotransmission), the neurotransmitter is released from axonal varicosities directly into the wide intercellular space, diffusing to receptors on multiple target cells.

22

What staining/method is used in a skin specimen to study Meissner's corpuscles, and what does it visualize?

  1. АImmunohistochemistry for collagen; reveals the corpuscle capsule
  2. БHematoxylin and eosin; stains neural elements black
  3. ВSilver nitrate impregnation; stains neural elements black
  4. ГFeulgen reaction; reveals DNA in tactile cell nuclei
Show answer
Answer: В) Silver nitrate impregnation; stains neural elements black

Silver salts are reduced on nervous tissue structures, staining nerve fibers and terminals within the encapsulated corpuscle a deep black color (argyrophilia).

23

Nuclei of which cells are visualized in the contact zone between nerve terminals and a muscle fiber?

  1. АSatellite cells and spinal cord neurons
  2. БMast cells and pericytes
  3. ВSchwann cells and the muscle fiber's own nuclei
  4. ГFibroblasts and endothelial cells
Show answer
Answer: В) Schwann cells and the muscle fiber's own nuclei

In the neuromuscular junction area, muscle fiber nuclei accumulate (forming the synaptic sole), and the axon terminal is externally covered by lemmocytes (Schwann cells).

24

Which enzyme of the postsynaptic membrane destroys acetylcholine, terminating signal transmission?

  1. АCholinesterase
  2. БATPase
  3. CAdenylyl cyclase
Show answer
Answer: А) Cholinesterase

Acetylcholinesterase is localized in the synaptic cleft on the postsynaptic membrane and hydrolyzes the neurotransmitter acetylcholine into choline and an acetic acid residue.

25

What is the functional significance of non-synaptic interneuronal contacts?

  1. АModulatory influence — tuning neuronal activity
  2. БRapid point-to-point signal transmission to a single cell
  3. ВGeneration of an action potential in the postsynaptic membrane
Show answer
Answer: А) Modulatory influence — tuning neuronal activity

Non-synaptic (volume) interneuronal transmission is based on the diffuse action of neuromodulators in the extracellular environment and provides tonic regulation of nerve cell excitability.

Sensory organs: organs of vision and olfaction

5 questions
26

What tissue composition is characteristic of the vascular tunic proper (choroid)?

  1. АLoose fibrous connective tissue
  2. БHyaline cartilage
  3. ВDense fibrous connective tissue
Show answer
Answer: А) Loose fibrous connective tissue

Properly speaking, the vascular tunic of the eye is formed by loose fibrous connective tissue, which contains a large number of blood vessels and pigment cells (melanocytes).

27

What is characteristic of receptors not associated with the cerebral cortex?

  1. AThey are part of analyzers in the classical sense
  2. BStimulation of these receptors does not reach human consciousness
  3. CInformation from them reaches human consciousness
Show answer
Answer: B) Stimulation of these receptors does not reach human consciousness

The cerebral cortex is the material substrate of consciousness; therefore, nerve impulses from receptors that lack cortical representation (e.g., many interoceptors) do not elicit conscious sensations.

28

As a result of which wave of lens histogenesis is the cortical layer formed?

  1. ASecond (fetal)
  2. BThird (postnatal/cortical)
  3. CFirst (embryonic)
Show answer
Answer: B) Third (postnatal/cortical)

Lens fibers are formed continuously throughout life: primary fibers form the embryonic nucleus, secondary fibers form the fetal nucleus, and fibers of the third (postnatal) generation, formed in the equator region, layer on the outside and constitute the lens cortex.

29

On the "angle of the eye" section stained with hematoxylin and eosin, it is necessary to distinguish the ciliary body from the adjacent sclera. Which feature specifically points to the ciliary body?

  1. ASclera
  2. BNumerous processes
  3. CBlood vessels
  4. DStromal pigment cells
Show answer
Answer: B) Numerous processes

The ciliary body forms characteristic folds—ciliary processes covered by a bilayered epithelium—whereas the sclera is a dense irregular connective tissue without outgrowths.

30

What is the lining of the spaces of Fontana and Schlemm's canal?

  1. ASimple squamous epithelium (endothelium) continuous with the endothelium of veins
  2. BStratified squamous nonkeratinizing epithelium
  3. CLoose fibrous connective tissue without an epithelial lining
  4. DSimple cuboidal epithelium
Show answer
Answer: A) Simple squamous epithelium (endothelium) continuous with the endothelium of veins

The spaces of the iridocorneal angle and the scleral venous sinus participate in the outflow of aqueous humor from the anterior chamber of the eye into the venous system, which is why they are lined with endothelium.

Cardiovascular System: Veins, Lymphatic Vessels, Heart

5 questions
31

Which heart tunics are formed from the myoepicardial plate?

  1. AMyocardium and epicardium
  2. BEndocardium and epicardium
  3. CEndocardium and myocardium
Show answer
Answer: A) Myocardium and epicardium

The myoepicardial plate, which is a derivative of the visceral layer of the splanchnotome, differentiates during embryogenesis into cardiac muscle tissue (myocardium) and the outer serous membrane (epicardium).

32

What is a characteristic feature of the tunica intima in medium-sized veins with moderately developed muscular elements?

  1. AFormation of valves
  2. BPresence of an internal elastic membrane
  3. CPresence of vasa vasorum
Show answer
Answer: A) Formation of valves

The internal tunic (intima) of the veins of the extremities, which belong to veins with moderately developed muscular elements, forms folds—venous valves—that prevent the backflow of blood.

33

In which part of the lymphangion is the main mass of smooth myocytes concentrated?

  1. AIn the valve sinus
  2. BIn the muscular cuff
  3. CIn the valve attachment area
Show answer
Answer: B) In the muscular cuff

The lymphangion is the structural and functional unit of a lymphatic vessel, and its active contraction is ensured by smooth myocytes that are maximally concentrated in the area of the muscular cuff.

34

From which tunic of the venous wall is the valve formed?

  1. ADerivative of the outer tunic (t. adventitia)
  2. BDerivative of the inner tunic (t. intima)
  3. CDerivative of the middle tunic (t. media)
Show answer
Answer: B) Derivative of the inner tunic (t. intima)

Venous valves are folds of the internal tunic (intima), the core of which is formed by connective tissue covered with endothelium.

35

In which lymphatic vessels is the increase in the number of myocytes in the middle tunic particularly pronounced?

  1. AIn small lymphatic vessels
  2. BIn vessels where lymph flows from bottom to top, against gravity
  3. CIn vessels where lymph flows from top to bottom, with gravity
Show answer
Answer: B) In vessels where lymph flows from bottom to top, against gravity

To propel lymph against the force of gravity (e.g., in the vessels of the lower extremities), active contraction of the wall is required, which is provided by a powerful layer of smooth myocytes in the middle tunic.

Digestive System: Oral Cavity Organs, Pharynx, and Esophagus

5 questions
36

Where does the longest process of the odontoblast go?

  1. AInto the dentinal tubule
  2. BInto the pulp cavity
  3. Through the apical foramen of the root canal
Show answer
Answer: A) Into the dentinal tubule

The apical processes of odontoblasts (Tomes' fibers) penetrate into the dentinal tubules and extend radially through the entire thickness of the dentin up to the amelodentinal junction.

37

Which method of specimen preparation is used to study enamel, considering that standard decalcification is not suitable?

  1. AImmunohistochemistry on cryosections
  2. BParaffin embedding without decalcification to obtain thin sections
  3. CStandard decalcification followed by hematoxylin and eosin staining
  4. DGround section (thin, unstained tooth plate)
Show answer
Answer: D) Ground section (thin, unstained tooth plate)

Tooth enamel consists of 96–97% mineral salts, so it is completely destroyed during standard decalcification; thin unstained ground sections are prepared for its study.

38

Which structures of the enamel organ participate in the formation of the cuticle?

  1. ADental lamina and outer enamel epithelium
  2. BOuter enamel epithelium and enamel pulp
  3. CInner enamel epithelium and enamel pulp
Show answer
Answer: B) Outer enamel epithelium and enamel pulp

Upon completion of amelogenesis, the outer enamel epithelium and enamel pulp cells regress and fuse, forming a cuticle (Nasmyth's membrane) on the surface of the tooth crown that protects the enamel prior to eruption.

39

What do ameloblasts (enameloblasts) produce?

  1. AEnamel
  2. BCuticle
  3. CDentin
Show answer
Answer: A) Enamel

Ameloblasts secrete specific proteins (amelogenins and enamelins) that form the organic matrix of tooth enamel followed by its mineralization.

40

Both striated and smooth muscle tissue were simultaneously detected in the biopsy of the muscular layer of the esophagus. Which part of the esophagus does this correspond to?

  1. AMiddle third
  2. BLower third
  3. CUpper third
Show answer
Answer: A) Middle third

In the upper third of the esophagus, the muscular layer is formed exclusively by striated muscle tissue; in the lower third, exclusively by smooth muscle tissue; whereas in the middle third, a gradual transition occurs and both types of muscle tissue are present.

Respiratory organs

5 questions
41

What type of connective tissue forms the lamina propria of the mucous membrane?

  1. ADense fibrous connective tissue
  2. BReticular connective tissue
  3. CLoose fibrous connective tissue
Show answer
Answer: C) Loose fibrous connective tissue

The lamina propria of the mucous membrane in all hollow organs, including the respiratory organs, is formed by loose fibrous connective tissue, which provides nutrition to the epithelium and immune defense.

42

What two components are structurally distinguished in the lungs?

  1. AIntrapulmonary airways (bronchial tree) and respiratory zones (acini)
  2. BExtrapulmonary airways and respiratory zones (acini)
  3. CExtrapulmonary airways and intrapulmonary airways (bronchial tree)
  4. DLungs and extrapulmonary airways
Show answer
Answer: A) Intrapulmonary airways (bronchial tree) and respiratory zones (acini)

The lung parenchyma is functionally and morphologically divided into the air-conducting region, represented by the intrapulmonary bronchial tree, and the respiratory region, whose structural and functional unit is the acinus.

43

Which cells are contained in the deep (cellular) layer of the perichondrium?

  1. AChondroblasts
  2. BAdipocytes
  3. CChondrocytes
  4. DFibroblasts
Show answer
Answer: A) Chondroblasts

The perichondrium consists of an outer fibrous layer and an inner cellular layer. The inner layer contains chondroblasts and prechondroblasts, which ensure appositional growth of cartilage.

44

What is the relief pattern of the inner surface of a medium-sized bronchus?

  1. ASmooth
  2. BSlightly tortuous
  3. CFolded
Show answer
Answer: C) Folded

The inner surface of medium-sized bronchi has a pronounced folded relief due to the well-developed muscularis mucosae, which contracts during histological preparation.

45

What tissue is located within the true vocal cords (vocal folds)?

  1. ACartilage tissue
  2. BSmooth muscle tissue
  3. CSkeletal muscle tissue
Show answer
Answer: C) Skeletal muscle tissue

The core of the true vocal fold is formed by the vocalis muscle, consisting of striated skeletal muscle tissue, voluntary contractions of which regulate ligament tension.

Male genital system

5 questions
46

During a histological examination of the prostate gland in a 55-year-old man, lamellated bodies were found in the lumens of the terminal parts and ducts. Which composition indicates that these are prostatic concretions (corpora amylacea) described as age-related changes?

  1. АBundles of smooth myocytes
  2. БLoose fibrous connective tissue with a high content of elastic fibers
  3. ВRemnants of destroyed epithelium, secretion components, mineral substances (predominantly calcium phosphate)
  4. ГHormones with a paracrine mechanism of action
Show answer
Answer: В) Remnants of destroyed epithelium, secretion components, mineral substances (predominantly calcium phosphate)

Prostatic concretions (corpora amylacea) are formed from condensed glandular secretion and desquamated epithelial cells, and with age, they can undergo calcification due to the deposition of calcium phosphate.

47

Which factor secreted by Sertoli cells inhibits the production of FSH in the pituitary gland?

  1. АInterleukin-1
  2. БInhibin
  3. ВActivin
  4. ГAndrogen-binding protein
Show answer
Answer: Б) Inhibin

Sustentocytes (Sertoli cells) secrete the hormone inhibin, which suppresses the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) by the anterior pituitary via a negative feedback mechanism.

48

What is the name of the duct formed by the fusion of the narrowed end of the seminal vesicle with the terminal part of the ductus deferens?

  1. АEjaculatory duct
  2. БDuctus deferens
  3. ВUrethra
Show answer
Answer: А) Ejaculatory duct

The ejaculatory duct (ductus ejaculatorius) is formed by the fusion of the excretory duct of the seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the ductus deferens, after which it penetrates the prostate gland and opens into the urethra.

49

From which organelle is the sperm acrosome formed?

  1. АFrom the endoplasmic reticulum
  2. БFrom lysosomes
  3. ВFrom the Golgi apparatus
  4. ГFrom mitochondria
Show answer
Answer: В) From the Golgi apparatus

The acrosome is a modified secretory vesicle formed from the elements of the Golgi complex during spermiogenesis. It contains hydrolytic enzymes necessary for dissolving the egg membranes during fertilization.

50

What key event occurs in prophase II of meiosis during spermatogenesis?

  1. АCytotomy with the formation of cytoplasmic bridges
  2. БBreakdown of the karyolemma (nuclear envelope)
  3. ВAlignment of chromosomes along the cell equator
  4. ГFormation of nuclear membranes
Show answer
Answer: Б) Breakdown of the karyolemma (nuclear envelope)

In prophase II of meiosis, fragmentation and breakdown of the nuclear envelope (karyolemma), disappearance of the nucleolus, and formation of the mitotic spindle take place.

Frequently asked questions

Where do these histology questions come from?

From the question bank of the Histology course by WhiteCoat Pro — the same one students use to prepare for classes. The entire bank contains 5,814 questions; here are 50 across 10 sections with answers and brief explanations.

Are these tests suitable for colloquiums and exams?

The questions are compiled according to the medical school curriculum and cover the main sections of the subject. We do not guarantee a match with the exam questions of any specific university: use the test to identify gaps, and review weak topics using a reference book or within the course.

How to solve: look at the answers immediately or take the test first?

First, go through the practice mode — choosing an option without hints better reinforces the material. The answers and explanations under each question on the page will be useful for reviewing mistakes.

Where to get the rest of the questions?

The complete histology bank with error analysis, study guides for each topic, and an AI tutor are available in the Histology course.

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