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Practice Tests with Answers · Pharmacology

Pharmacology Test with Answers: 50 Questions for Exam Preparation

50 pharmacology test questions from the WhiteCoat Pro course bank: correct answer and brief explanation under each question. Practice online in the simulator or browse the list below — questions are grouped by syllabus sections.

Questions on page50 with answers
Course sections10
Questions in the complete bank15,039
Test duration≈ 30 min
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General Pharmacology

5 questions
1

Which drug is the drug of choice for managing seizures caused by strychnine poisoning (resulting from the blockade of ionotropic glycine receptors)?

  1. ANaloxone
  2. BAcetylcysteine
  3. CFlumazenil
  4. DDiazepam
Show answer
Answer: D) Diazepam

Diazepam enhances GABAergic inhibition in the central nervous system, effectively managing seizures caused by the blockade of inhibitory glycine receptors.

2

Which substances are subject to strict legal regulations regarding prescribing, especially when using maximum doses?

  1. ATopical antiseptics
  2. BVenomous and potent substances
  3. CProbiotics
  4. DVitamins
Show answer
Answer: B) Venomous and potent substances

Venomous substances (List A) and potent substances (List B) have a narrow therapeutic index; therefore, their prescribing and dosing are strictly regulated by law to prevent severe poisonings.

3

What is the apparent volume of distribution (Vd)?

  1. AVolume of blood plasma binding the drug
  2. BActual anatomical volume of organs where the drug accumulates
  3. CHypothetical fluid volume in which the drug is distributed at a concentration equal to that in the plasma
  4. DTotal extracellular fluid volume of the body
Show answer
Answer: C) Hypothetical fluid volume in which the drug is distributed at a concentration equal to that in the plasma

The apparent volume of distribution is a calculated pharmacokinetic parameter reflecting the hypothetical volume of fluid that would be required to uniformly distribute the administered dose of a drug at a concentration similar to that in the blood plasma.

4

What are the tight junctions between intestinal epithelial cells that impede the absorption of hydrophilic substances called?

  1. ANexus
  2. BDesmosomata
  3. CZonulae occludentes
  4. DZonulae adherentes
Show answer
Answer: C) Zonulae occludentes

Tight junctions (zonulae occludentes) form a continuous barrier between epithelial cells, preventing paracellular diffusion of water-soluble molecules.

5

Which drug is a ligand for a receptor with tyrosine kinase activity?

  1. APropranolol
  2. BFurosemide
  3. CInsulin
  4. DAtropine
Show answer
Answer: C) Insulin

The insulin receptor belongs to catalytic receptors and possesses intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity. Hormone binding induces receptor autophosphorylation, which triggers a cascade of intracellular reactions.

Agents acting on adrenergic synapses

5 questions
6

How does the direct action of adrenomimetics differ from the action of ephedrine on synaptic transmission?

  1. AAdrenomimetics block adrenoceptors, while ephedrine inhibits MAO
  2. BAdrenomimetics inhibit norepinephrine reuptake, while ephedrine directly stimulates adrenoceptors
  3. CAdrenomimetics directly stimulate adrenoceptors, while ephedrine enhances transmission by stimulating mediator release (displacing norepinephrine from nerve terminals)
  4. DAdrenomimetics impair norepinephrine storage, while ephedrine blocks reuptake
Show answer
Answer: C) Adrenomimetics directly stimulate adrenoceptors, while ephedrine enhances transmission by stimulating mediator release (displacing norepinephrine from nerve terminals)

Direct adrenomimetics bind directly to adrenoceptors, whereas ephedrine acts predominantly indirectly by stimulating the release of endogenous norepinephrine from presynaptic terminals.

7

Which combination is most dangerous due to the risk of a hypertensive crisis ("cheese effect")?

  1. ANialamide + tyramine (cheese, other tyramine-rich foods)
  2. BReserpine + tyramine
  3. CImipramine + reserpine
  4. DCocaine + reserpine
Show answer
Answer: A) Nialamide + tyramine (cheese, other tyramine-rich foods)

Nialamide is a non-selective MAO inhibitor that blocks the breakdown of tyramine in the body. The accumulation of dietary tyramine leads to a massive release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve terminals and the development of a severe hypertensive crisis.

8

Tolerance develops with long-term use of $\beta$-adrenomimetics. Which drugs are subject to this?

  1. AOnly non-selective $\beta$-adrenomimetics
  2. BBoth selective and non-selective $\beta$-adrenomimetics
  3. COnly selective $\beta_2$-adrenomimetics
  4. DOnly $\beta_1$-adrenomimetics
Show answer
Answer: B) Both selective and non-selective $\beta$-adrenomimetics

Tolerance in the form of receptor desensitization is a universal adaptation mechanism and develops with prolonged agonist exposure to any $\beta$-adrenoceptor subtype.

9

How will the effect of indirect-acting sympathomimetics (tyramine/ephedrine/amphetamine) change with concurrent administration of reserpine?

  1. ASignificantly increased due to MAO inhibition
  2. BIncreased due to blockade of norepinephrine reuptake
  3. CDecreased, as reserpine depletes norepinephrine stores in nerve terminals
  4. DUnchanged, as reserpine acts only on receptors
Show answer
Answer: C) Decreased, as reserpine depletes norepinephrine stores in nerve terminals

Indirect-acting sympathomimetics exert their effect by releasing norepinephrine from presynaptic vesicles. Reserpine blocks the vesicular monoamine transporter, depleting neurotransmitter stores, thereby significantly diminishing the action of sympathomimetics.

10

How does the central nervous system (CNS) effect of reserpine differ from its peripheral effect?

  1. AIn the CNS, it blocks adrenoceptors without affecting neurotransmitter levels
  2. BIn the CNS, it decreases norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin levels by crossing the blood-brain barrier
  3. CIn the CNS, it increases dopamine levels, exerting a stimulatory effect
  4. DIt does not penetrate the CNS, so there are no central effects
Show answer
Answer: B) In the CNS, it decreases norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin levels by crossing the blood-brain barrier

Reserpine is a sympatholytic agent that readily crosses the blood-brain barrier. Unlike at peripheral terminals where it predominantly depletes norepinephrine stores, in the CNS the drug additionally decreases dopamine and serotonin levels, causing a sedative effect and depression.

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Hematopoiesis-regulating agents

5 questions
11

How does the criterion for discontinuing iron therapy differ from the approach of "stopping after hemoglobin normalization"?

  1. ADiscontinued only if tooth enamel darkening appears
  2. BDiscontinued after 3–5 days of intake if well-being improves
  3. CDiscontinued immediately upon reaching normal hemoglobin; monitoring serum iron is unnecessary
  4. DDiscontinued after complete replenishment of iron stores, not just after hemoglobin normalization; serum iron monitoring is required
Show answer
Answer: D) Discontinued after complete replenishment of iron stores, not just after hemoglobin normalization; serum iron monitoring is required

Iron therapy is continued for several months after hemoglobin normalization to replenish tissue stores of the trace element, which is monitored via ferritin and serum iron levels.

12

When are enteral iron preparations contraindicated due to the risk of irritating the gastrointestinal mucosa?

  1. AGastroesophageal reflux disease without erosions
  2. BPeptic ulcer disease
  3. CIrritable bowel syndrome without ulcers
  4. DFunctional dyspepsia without inflammation
Show answer
Answer: B) Peptic ulcer disease

Oral iron preparations exert a direct irritating and damaging effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa, which can provoke an exacerbation of peptic ulcer disease.

13

Which colony-stimulating factor predominantly stimulates the production of neutrophils?

  1. AGranulocyte CSF
  2. BGranulocyte-macrophage CSF
  3. CMacrophage CSF
  4. DInterleukin-3
Show answer
Answer: A) Granulocyte CSF

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) selectively acts on myeloid progenitor cells, stimulating their proliferation and differentiation primarily into mature neutrophils.

14

How long after subcutaneous administration of GM-CSF is the peak concentration ($C_{\max}$) reached?

  1. AIn 12 hours
  2. BIn 30–60 minutes
  3. CIn 3–4 hours
  4. DIn 6–8 hours
Show answer
Answer: C) In 3–4 hours

Following subcutaneous injection, recombinant colony-stimulating factor macromolecules are absorbed into the systemic circulation gradually, reaching maximum concentration on average in 3–4 hours.

15

Which dosage form of iron preparations is preferred to prevent tooth enamel darkening?

  1. AParenteral iron forms for all patients
  2. BSolid iron forms (tablets/dragees/capsules)
  3. CLiquid iron forms (syrup/drops)
  4. DOnly iron preparations with ascorbic acid
Show answer
Answer: B) Solid iron forms (tablets/dragees/capsules)

Liquid iron preparations upon contact with teeth can cause persistent enamel darkening. The use of solid dosage forms (tablets or capsules) prevents direct contact of the active substance with the oral cavity.

Diuretics

5 questions
16

Which drug interaction can increase the risk of hypokalemia during thiazide diuretic therapy?

  1. AThiazides + angiotensin II receptor blockers
  2. BThiazides + potassium-sparing diuretics
  3. CThiazides + glucocorticoids
  4. DThiazides + ACE inhibitors
Show answer
Answer: C) Thiazides + glucocorticoids

Glucocorticoids possess mineralocorticoid activity and promote renal potassium excretion, which, when co-administered with thiazide diuretics, is additive and increases the risk of severe hypokalemia.

17

What is the route of administration for mannitol?

  1. AInhalation
  2. BSubcutaneous
  3. CIntravenous
  4. DOral
Show answer
Answer: C) Intravenous

Mannitol is practically not absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract, therefore it is administered intravenously to achieve a systemic osmotic diuretic effect.

18

Which adverse effect is most characteristic of potassium-sparing diuretics?

  1. AHypochloremia
  2. BHypokalemia
  3. CHyperkalemia
  4. DPronounced ototoxicity
Show answer
Answer: C) Hyperkalemia

Potassium-sparing diuretics reduce the secretion of potassium ions into the lumen of the collecting ducts, which, with prolonged use or impaired renal function, naturally leads to potassium retention in the body and the development of hyperkalemia.

19

Which diuretic is the drug of choice if an effect is needed through the blockade of Na+-Cl- cotransport in the early segment of the distal tubules?

  1. AMannitol
  2. BAmiloride
  3. CHydrochlorothiazide
  4. DFurosemide
Show answer
Answer: C) Hydrochlorothiazide

Thiazide diuretics, which include hydrochlorothiazide, act in the early part of the distal convoluted tubules by inhibiting sodium and chloride ion symport.

20

Blockade of ENaC in the apical membrane of the principal cells of the renal tubules leads to potassium:

  1. ARemaining in the cell and blood without being excreted into the tubular lumen
  2. BBeing actively secreted into the tubular lumen
  3. BIt is excreted along with sodium through the basolateral membrane
  4. GIt is reabsorbed to an enhanced degree in the loop of Henle
Show answer
Answer: A) It remains in the cell and blood without being excreted into the tubular lumen

Sodium channel (ENaC) blockade eliminates the electrochemical gradient necessary for potassium secretion into the lumen of the collecting ducts. As a result, potassium is retained in the cells and bloodstream, which underlies the mechanism of action of potassium-sparing diuretics.

Cardiovascular Drugs

5 questions
21

Which mechanism of action is characteristic of calcium channel blockers as a group of myotropic vasodilators?

  1. AThey block postsynaptic membrane $\alpha_1$-adrenergic receptors
  2. BThey promote $K^+$ efflux, causing membrane hyperpolarization
  3. CThey directly relax smooth muscle independently of ion channels
  4. DThey prevent $Ca^{2+}$ ion influx into the cell, reducing the contractility of the vascular wall
Show answer
Answer: D) They prevent $Ca^{2+}$ ion influx into the cell, reducing the contractility of the vascular wall

Slow calcium channel blockers (L-type) reduce the influx of extracellular calcium into vascular smooth muscle cells, which prevents the formation of the actin-myosin complex and leads to vasodilation.

22

Indication for the prescription of corglycon (May lily glycoside):

  1. AGlaucoma
  2. BHeart failure
  3. CHyperlipidemia
  4. DEpilepsy
Show answer
Answer: B) Heart failure

Corglycon belongs to the group of cardiac glycosides, which have a positive inotropic effect and are used to treat acute heart failure.

23

In which condition is the use of minoxidil indicated?

  1. ASevere arterial hypertension resistant to other antihypertensive drugs
  2. BAcute heart failure
  3. CMild arterial hypertension as first-line monotherapy
  4. DHypotension associated with blood loss
Show answer
Answer: A) Severe arterial hypertension resistant to other antihypertensive drugs

Systemic minoxidil is a potent peripheral vasodilator used for severe forms of arterial hypertension refractory to combinations of other drugs.

24

When is it preferable to choose a neurotropic antihypertensive drug rather than a drug acting primarily on blood vessels?

  1. AWhen it is necessary to increase cardiac output with unchanged SVR
  2. BWhen it is necessary to simultaneously reduce cardiac output and SVR (affecting the sympathetic innervation of the heart and blood vessels)
  3. CWhen it is required to lower blood pressure solely by reducing SVR without affecting cardiac output
  4. DWhen the goal is to induce fluid retention to stabilize blood pressure
Show answer
Answer: B) When it is necessary to simultaneously reduce cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance (due to the effect on sympathetic innervation of the heart and blood vessels)

Centrally acting neurotropic drugs decrease sympathetic tone, leading to a simultaneous reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and cardiac output. This helps avoid reflex tachycardia characteristic of direct vasodilators.

25

Which endogenous ligand binds to imidazoline I₁ receptors in the nucleus tractus solitarii?

  1. ASerotonin
  2. BAcetylcholine
  3. CAgmatine (decarboxylated arginine)
  4. DNorepinephrine
Show answer
Answer: C) Agmatine (decarboxylated arginine)

Agmatine, formed in the body by the decarboxylation of the amino acid arginine, is considered the main endogenous ligand for imidazoline receptors. By binding to I₁ receptors in the brainstem, it is involved in the central regulation of blood pressure.

Antifungal agents

5 questions
26

Which of the following belongs to the antimetabolite group (antifungal drugs)?

  1. ACaspofungin
  2. BFluconazole
  3. CFlucytosine
  4. DTerbinafine
Show answer
Answer: C) Flucytosine

Flucytosine penetrates the fungal cell and is converted into fluorouracil, which incorporates into RNA and disrupts nucleic acid synthesis, acting as an antimetabolite.

27

How does the supercapside (envelope) differ from the virion capsid?

  1. AThe supercapsid protects the genome, while the capsid performs the cell attachment function
  2. BThe supercapsid is present in all viruses, whereas the capsid is present only in some
  3. CThe supercapsid consists of proteins, whereas the capsid consists of lipids
  4. DThe supercapsid consists of a lipid membrane, whereas the capsid is proteinaceous
Show answer
Answer: D) The supercapsid consists of a lipid membrane, whereas the capsid is proteinaceous

The capsid is a protein shell surrounding the viral genome, whereas the supercapsid (peplos) is an additional external lipid-containing membrane derived from the host cell membranes.

28

Which of the following belong to the polyene antifungal antibiotics?

  1. ATerbinafine
  2. BClotrimazole
  3. CAmphotericin B
  4. DFluconazole
Show answer
Answer: C) Amphotericin B

Amphotericin B is a natural polyene antibiotic that binds to ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, disrupting its permeability. The other drugs are synthetic antifungals (azoles and allylamines).

29

How does the mechanism of action of terbinafine differ from that of azoles?

  1. ATerbinafine forms pores in the membrane, while azoles block squalene synthesis
  2. BTerbinafine inhibits 14-demethylase, while azoles inhibit squalene epoxidase
  3. CTerbinafine binds to ergosterol, while azoles inhibit squalene epoxidase
  4. DTerbinafine blocks squalene epoxidase, while azoles block 14-demethylase
Show answer
Answer: D) Terbinafine blocks squalene epoxidase, while azoles block 14-demethylase

Allylamines (terbinafine) disrupt an early stage of fungal cell wall ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting squalene epoxidase, whereas azoles block the 14-alpha-demethylase enzyme at a later stage.

30

How does clotrimazole differ from econazole in its spectrum of activity?

  1. AActive against herpes viruses
  2. BActive against gram-positive cocci
  3. CActive against anaerobes (Bacteroides, Gardnerella vaginalis) and, at high concentrations, against Trichomonas
  4. DActive against Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Show answer
Answer: C) Active against anaerobes (Bacteroides, Gardnerella vaginalis) and, at high concentrations, against Trichomonas

In addition to its broad antifungal action, clotrimazole possesses antibacterial activity against certain anaerobes (including Gardnerella) and antiprotozoal activity against Trichomonas vaginalis. This makes it particularly effective in mixed gynecological infections.

Drugs for protozoan infections

5 questions
31

What is the fundamental difference between the search for targets in tumor chemotherapy and antimicrobial therapy?

  1. ATumor cells divide slower than microorganisms, which hinders drug action
  2. BThe infectious agent is biologically foreign, making it extremely difficult to find specific differences
  3. CA tumor cell originates from the body's own cells, making it extremely difficult to find specific differences
  4. DAntimicrobial drugs lack specific targets, unlike antitumor drugs
Show answer
Answer: C) A tumor cell originates from the body's own cells, making it extremely difficult to find specific differences

Microorganisms possess unique structures (such as a cell wall), which allows for the creation of drugs with high selective toxicity, whereas tumor cells are metabolically similar to the healthy cells of the host organism.

32

Which drug is a component of Fansidar in combination with sulfadoxine?

  1. ASulfalene
  2. BPyrimethamine
  3. CTrimethoprim
  4. DSulfadimetoxine
Show answer
Answer: B) Pyrimethamine

The combined antimalarial drug Fansidar contains the long-acting sulfonamide sulfadoxine and the dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor pyrimethamine.

33

Which drug is used to treat African trypanosomiasis?

  1. APentamidine
  2. BSodium stibogluconate
  3. CMeglumine antimoniate
  4. DSolustibamine
Show answer
Answer: A) Pentamidine

Pentamidine is the drug of choice for the treatment of the hemolymphatic (early) stage of African trypanosomiasis. The other listed agents are antimonials used in leishmaniasis.

34

Which drug is a structural analogue of ubiquinone and blocks electron transport in the parasite's mitochondria?

  1. AQuinine
  2. BPyrimethamine
  3. CAtovaquone
  4. DPrimaquine
Show answer
Answer: C) Atovaquone

Atovaquone is structurally similar to coenzyme Q (ubiquinone) and competitively inhibits the cytochrome bc1 complex, disrupting plasmodial cellular respiration.

35

In which condition is levamisole indicated?

  1. ANecatoriasis
  2. BFascioliasis
  3. CTaeniasis
  4. DDiphyllobothriasis
Show answer
Answer: A) Necatoriasis

Levamisole is an anthelmintic agent active against nematodes (roundworms). Necatoriasis is caused by roundworms, whereas the other listed conditions are caused by tapeworms or flukes, against which the drug is ineffective.

Vitamins

5 questions
36

Which drug is the main representative of vitamin C?

  1. ARutoside
  2. BDihydroquercetin
  3. CAscorbic acid
  4. DTetrahydrofolic acid
Show answer
Answer: C) Ascorbic acid

Ascorbic acid is the international nonproprietary name and chemical designation of vitamin C.

37

Which drug is the agent of choice for the treatment of pellagra?

  1. AFolic acid
  2. BNicotinic acid (vitamin PP)
  3. CCyanocobalamin
  4. DPyridoxine
Show answer
Answer: B) Nicotinic acid (vitamin PP)

Pellagra develops due to niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency; therefore, nicotinic acid or nicotinamide preparations are used for its specific treatment.

38

Which mediator, produced via the COX-2 pathway during inflammation, lowers the pain threshold of nociceptors and causes fever?

  1. AProstaglandin E₂ (PGE₂)
  2. BThromboxane A₂
  3. CProstaglandin F2α (PGF2α)
  4. DProstacyclin (PGI₂)
Show answer
Answer: A) Prostaglandin E₂ (PGE₂)

Prostaglandin E₂ is synthesized at the site of inflammation via cyclooxygenase-2, sensitizes pain receptors to the action of bradykinin and histamine, and affects the thermoregulatory center in the hypothalamus, causing fever.

39

In which condition is the administration of β-carotene (provitamin A) indicated?

  1. AXerophthalmia (dryness of the cornea and conjunctiva), prevention
  2. BIron-deficiency anemia
  3. CAcute asthma attack
  4. DHypothyroidism
Show answer
Answer: A) Xerophthalmia (dryness of the cornea and conjunctiva), prevention

Beta-carotene is a precursor of retinol (vitamin A), the deficiency of which leads to impaired ocular epithelial trophic function and the development of xerophthalmia.

40

Impaired 1-hydroxylation in the kidneys is a key cause in the development of which pathology?

  1. AHypercalcemia
  2. BNeonatal rickets
  3. CNephrolithiasis
  4. DOsteopenia and osteoporosis
Show answer
Answer: D) Osteopenia and osteoporosis

The final stage of active vitamin D (calcitriol) synthesis occurs in the kidneys. When this process is impaired, intestinal calcium absorption decreases, leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism and bone resorption with the development of osteoporosis.

Blood Pressure-Raising Agents (Hypertensive Agents)

5 questions
41

What is the main effect and site of action that distinguishes cardiotonic agents from other drugs?

  1. ACardiotonics do not affect contractility, but merely increase circulating blood volume.
  2. BCardiotonics increase myocardial contractility by acting solely on the vascular wall and reducing afterload.
  3. CCardiotonics increase myocardial contractility by acting directly on working cardiomyocytes (positive inotropic effect).
  4. DCardiotonics decrease myocardial contractility, acting predominantly on the cardiac conduction system.
Show answer
Answer: C) Cardiotonics increase myocardial contractility by acting directly on working cardiomyocytes (positive inotropic effect).

The main pharmacodynamic property of cardiotonic agents is a direct stimulating effect on the contractile myocardium, manifested by a positive inotropic effect and an increase in cardiac output.

42

Under which conditions can drugs that stimulate myocardial contractility be used?

  1. АChronic heart failure only
  2. БAcute heart failure only
  3. ВStable angina pectoris only
  4. ГAcute and chronic heart failure
Show answer
Answer: Г) Acute and chronic heart failure

Cardiotonic agents are used in both acute (dobutamine, dopamine, levosimendan) and chronic (cardiac glycosides) heart failure to increase the ejection fraction.

43

Levosimendan enhances contraction by increasing the sensitivity of troponin C to Ca2+. Which combination will potentially increase the risk of severe hypotension due to additive vasodilation?

  1. АLevosimendan + nitrates (e.g., nitroglycerin)
  2. БLevosimendan + proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole)
  3. ВLevosimendan + H1 antihistamines (e.g., loratadine)
  4. ГLevosimendan + iron supplements
Show answer
Answer: А) Levosimendan + nitrates (e.g., nitroglycerin)

Levosimendan has its own vasodilating effect through the opening of ATP-sensitive potassium channels; therefore, its combination with nitric oxide donors can lead to a sharp drop in blood pressure.

44

The cardiac glycoside group includes:

  1. АDobutamine
  2. БDigoxin
  3. ВMilrinone
  4. ГLevosimendan
Show answer
Answer: Б) Digoxin

Digoxin is a classic cardiotonic agent of plant origin from the cardiac glycoside group. All other listed drugs belong to non-glycoside inotropic agents.

45

What typical adverse drug reaction (ADR) is most likely with the use of the calcium sensitizer levosimendan (positive inotrope)?

  1. АSevere hypocalcemia
  2. БBronchospasm
  3. ВArrhythmias (including tachycardia)
  4. ГSevere hypoglycemia
Show answer
Answer: В) Arrhythmias (including tachycardia)

Levosimendan has positive inotropic and vasodilating effects, which can lead to reflex activation of the sympathoadrenal system. This, along with increased myocardial sensitivity to calcium, often causes tachycardia and various arrhythmias.

Antiseptic and Disinfecting Agents

5 questions
46

Eucalyptus leaf infusion in the form of douches is used for:

  1. АStomatitis and gingivitis
  2. БVaginitis and cervical erosion
  3. ВTracheitis and laryngitis
  4. ГFuruncles and carbuncles
Show answer
Answer: Б) Vaginitis and cervical erosion

Douching is a method of vaginal irrigation; therefore, this dosage form of eucalyptus infusion is used exclusively in gynecological practice to treat local inflammatory processes.

47

What is the reason for preferring 70% ethanol over 90–95% ethanol for surgical field preparation?

  1. АLess irritant effect on mucous membranes
  2. БOptimal antiseptic permeability
  3. ВBroader spectrum of action
  4. ГPronounced tanning property
Show answer
Answer: Б) Optimal antiseptic permeability

Alcohol at a concentration of 70% coagulates proteins of the outer membranes of microorganisms more slowly, allowing it to penetrate deeper into the bacterial cell and exert a more pronounced bactericidal effect than 95% alcohol, which has a rapid superficial tanning effect.

48

Compared to oxidizing agents that release atomic oxygen, the bactericidal effect of hydrogen peroxide is:

  1. АSelective
  2. БEquivalent
  3. ВMore pronounced
  4. ГInsignificant
Show answer
Answer: Г) Insignificant

Upon contact with tissues, hydrogen peroxide is cleaved by catalase with the release of molecular oxygen, which has a weak antimicrobial effect compared to atomic oxygen. The main effect of hydrogen peroxide is mechanical wound cleaning through foaming.

49

For root canal disinfection and activation of dental tissue regeneration, the drug of choice from the group of alkaline antiseptics is:

  1. АCalcium hydroxide
  2. БSodium tetraborate
  3. ВAmmonia
  4. ГSodium bicarbonate
Show answer
Answer: А) Calcium hydroxide

Calcium hydroxide creates a pronounced alkaline environment (pH around 12.5), which provides a powerful antibacterial effect in the root canal. In addition, it stimulates odontoblasts to form secondary dentin, promoting dental tissue regeneration.

50

Which drug is a prodrug that releases active formaldehyde in an acidic urine environment?

  1. АFormagel
  2. БFormaldehyde
  3. ВFormidron
  4. DHexamethylenetetramine (methenamine)
Show answer
Answer: D) Hexamethylenetetramine (methenamine)

Hexamethylenetetramine (methenamine) has no intrinsic antimicrobial activity, but at a urine pH below 5.5 it hydrolyzes to release formaldehyde, which denatures bacterial proteins.

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