General questions
5 questionsWhich Neisseria meningitidis serogroups cause the vast majority of meningococcal disease cases?
- AA, B, C, Y, and W-135
- BA, D, E, F, and G
- CC, X, Z, M, and N
- DB, D, H, K, and L
Show answer
The vast majority of invasive meningococcal disease cases worldwide are caused by five serogroups: A, B, C, Y, and W-135. Modern polysaccharide and conjugate vaccines are specifically directed against these serogroups.
The Frankfort horizontal plane passes through:
- AUpper margin of the orbit and lower margin of the tragus
- BSuperciliary arch and upper margin of the auricle
- CLower margin of the orbit and upper margin of the tragus
- DLower margin of the orbit and the earlobe
Show answer
The Frankfort (auricular-orbital) horizontal is a standard anthropometric plane passing through the lowest point of the left orbital margin and the highest points of the external acoustic meatuses (or upper margins of the tragus).
A patient presents with severe dizziness and balance impairment following a traumatic brain injury. Damage to which structures, designated as cortical/central for balance, is most likely?
- AFrontal lobe
- BOccipital lobe
- CTemporal lobe and cerebellum
- DParietal lobe
Show answer
The cortical part of the vestibular analyzer is located in the temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex, and the cerebellum is the main central organ for movement coordination and balance maintenance.
The duration of a single daytime nap in children in their 3rd year of life is:
- A2–2.5 hours
- B0.5–1 hour
- C1–1.5 hours
- D3–3.5 hours
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In children of the third year of life, the need for daytime sleep is met by a single rest period, which normally lasts about 2–2.5 hours for full recovery of the nervous system.
Child positioning when feeding semi-solid food starting from 6 months of age should be:
- AImmediately in a high chair starting from 4 months
- BIn the adult's arms with subsequent transition to a high chair
- CStanding with support next to an adult
- DSupine in the crib
Show answer
At 6 months of age, a child may not yet have confident trunk control for independent sitting. Feeding in an adult's arms provides the necessary support with gradual introduction to the high chair as the skill develops.
Anemias
5 questionsWhat is the pathogenetic basis of hemolytic anemias?
- ABlood loss
- BSuppression of hematopoietic stem cells
- CAccelerated erythrocyte destruction
- DDepletion of iron stores
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Hemolytic anemias share a common feature: shortening of the erythrocyte lifespan due to their premature and accelerated destruction (hemolysis).
Which hematopoietic cell lineage is selectively impaired in Diamond-Blackfan anemia, unlike Fanconi anemia?
- ALeukocyte lineage only
- BAll hematopoietic lineages simultaneously
- CPlatelet lineage only
- DErythroid lineage only
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Diamond-Blackfan anemia is a congenital pure red cell aplasia characterized by isolated suppression of erythropoiesis, whereas Fanconi anemia presents with pancytopenia involving all hematopoietic lineages.
Which transfusion therapy method is used in mechanical hemolytic anemia to correct coagulopathy?
- ACryoprecipitate transfusion
- BAlbumin transfusion
- CPlatelet concentrate transfusion
- DFresh frozen plasma transfusion
Show answer
Fresh frozen plasma contains the full spectrum of blood coagulation factors and is used to replenish their deficiency in consumption coagulopathy (DIC syndrome), which may complicate intravascular hemolysis.
Which protein is responsible for the high bioavailability of iron in breast milk?
- ATransferrin
- BHemoglobin
- CFerritin
- DLactoferrin
Show answer
Lactoferrin binds iron in breast milk and interacts with specific receptors in the infant's intestine, ensuring the absorption of approximately 50% of this trace element.
In which intestinal disease can oral iron supplementation exacerbate mucosal inflammation, serving as an indication for parenteral administration?
- AIrritable bowel syndrome
- BUlcerative colitis
- CFunctional constipation
- DBiliary dyskinesia
Show answer
Oral iron preparations can increase oxidative stress and alter the intestinal microbiome, precipitating flares of inflammatory bowel disease (such as ulcerative colitis). Therefore, in the presence of active mucosal inflammation, intravenous iron is the treatment of choice.
Master the entire topic in the Pediatrics course
This is a summary. The course covers everything tested in classes and exams.
- 3,738 pages of study guides on all topics
- Assignments and quizzes after every topic — just like in a colloquium
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Rheumatic Diseases
5 questionsWhat level of proteinuria is used as a criterion for renal involvement in SLE?
- Agreater than 0.5 g/day
- Bgreater than 1.0 g/day
- Cgreater than 3.0 g/day
- Dgreater than 0.1 g/day
Show answer
According to international classification criteria for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLICC, EULAR/ACR), persistent proteinuria greater than 0.5 grams per 24 hours is considered a reliable sign of lupus nephritis.
Which type of fluorescence pattern in the immunofluorescent detection of ANA is most pathognomonic for SLE?
- AHomogeneous
- BPeripheral (rim)
- CSpeckled
- DNucleolar
Show answer
The peripheral (rim) antinuclear factor fluorescence pattern is caused by antibodies to native double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA), which are a highly specific marker for systemic lupus erythematosus.
A child with Henoch-Schönlein purpura presents with frequent, crampy abdominal pain throughout the day, nausea, vomiting, and bloody stools. What syndrome has developed in the patient?
- ACutaneous syndrome
- BAbdominal syndrome
- CArticular syndrome
- DCerebrovascular syndrome
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Crampy abdominal pain, vomiting, and gastrointestinal bleeding in hemorrhagic vasculitis are caused by hemorrhages into the intestinal wall and mesentery, which constitutes the clinical picture of abdominal syndrome.
Which conditions should be differentiated from SLE when hemorrhagic rashes and cytopenias predominate?
- Aacute rheumatic fever and juvenile idiopathic arthritis
- BIgA vasculitis, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, systemic vasculitides, and primary APS
- Ctick-borne borreliosis and yersiniosis
- Dmalignant lymphoproliferative disorders
Show answer
Hemorrhagic syndrome and decreased blood cell counts require the exclusion of primary vasculitides, autoimmune platelet destruction (ITP), and antiphospholipid syndrome, which share similar clinical and laboratory manifestations.
A child with SLE is found to have thrombotic verrucous lesions in areas of endocardial ulceration with small valve leaflet perforations. What is this lesion called?
- ALibman-Sacks endocarditis
- BBacterial thromboendocarditis
- CInfectious endocarditis
- DRheumatic valvulitis
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Abacterial verrucous endocarditis developing in systemic lupus erythematosus and antiphospholipid syndrome is eponymously known as Libman-Sacks endocarditis. It is characterized by the formation of immune thrombotic masses on the valves without the participation of an infectious agent.
Herpesvirus infection
5 questionsWhat is the fundamental difference in the clinical presentation of congenital CMV infection when acquired in early versus late pregnancy?
- AIn early stages, the central nervous system is affected; in late stages, only the liver
- BIn early stages, malformations develop; in late stages, an acute infectious process without malformations
- CIn early stages, jaundice occurs; in late stages, hepatosplenomegaly
- DIn early stages, the infection is asymptomatic; in late stages, it is always fatal
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Fetal infection in the first trimester (during organogenesis) has a teratogenic effect and leads to true malformations. Infection in the third trimester causes a generalized inflammatory process with internal organ involvement, but without disrupting their organogenesis.
What are the presumptive diagnostic tests for infectious mononucleosis (Paul-Bunnell and Davidsohn/Hoff-Bauer tests) based on?
- ADetection of heterophile antibodies that agglutinate animal erythrocytes
- BDetection of atypical mononuclear cells in a blood smear
- CDetermination of viral DNA by PCR
- DDetection of antibodies to the viral capsid antigen
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The Paul-Bunnell and Hoff-Bauer reactions detect heterophile antibodies (IgM) that appear in the blood of patients with infectious mononucleosis and are capable of agglutinating erythrocytes of various animals (sheep, horse).
What degrees of severity are distinguished in typical forms of infectious mononucleosis?
- AMild, moderate, and severe
- BInitial and peak
- CAcute and subacute
- DCompensated and decompensated
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In Russian clinical practice, the severity of infectious mononucleosis, like most other infectious diseases, is traditionally categorized into mild, moderate, and severe forms.
What is the leading method in the prevention of herpesvirus infection?
- APassive immunization
- BSpecific vaccination
- CChemoprophylaxis with acyclovir
- DNonspecific prevention
Show answer
There are no reliable vaccines against herpes simplex for mass use; therefore, compliance with personal hygiene rules and barrier contraception remain the mainstay of infection prevention.
What is the main route of transmission of the varicella-zoster virus?
- ATransfusion
- BVertical
- BAirborne (droplet)
- DContact
Show answer
Varicella-zoster virus is highly contagious and is transmitted primarily via airborne droplets during coughing, sneezing, or talking, and can travel significant distances with air currents.
Tonsillitis (Sore Throat)
5 questionsWhat are secondary (symptomatic) sore throats?
- AA complication of chronic tonsillitis
- BA form of catarrhal tonsillitis
- CA local manifestation of a systemic pathology
- DAn independent primary disease of the tonsils
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Secondary sore throats occur as a manifestation of systemic infectious diseases (diphtheria, scarlet fever, infectious mononucleosis) or blood disorders (leukemias, agranulocytosis).
Which measures belong to individual nonspecific prevention of tonsillitis?
- AStreptococcal vaccination
- BBody hardening (conditioning)
- CA course of antibiotics during the interepidemic period
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Nonspecific prevention aims to increase the body's overall resistance, which is achieved through conditioning methods, a balanced diet, and maintaining a proper work-rest schedule.
Which symptom is characteristic of follicular tonsillitis and describes the appearance of suppurating follicles through the epithelium?
- A"Starry sky" sign
- B"Sandstorm" sign
- C"Cobblestone" sign
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In follicular tonsillitis, suppurating follicles shine through the hyperemic tonsillar mucosa as small yellowish-white dots, metaphorically referred to as the "starry sky" sign.
What does the sanitization of chronic infection foci as part of tonsillitis prevention include?
- ATaking B-group vitamins
- BGargling with antiseptics daily
- CTreatment of dental caries and chronic sinusitis
Show answer
Chronic foci of infection in the oral cavity and nasopharynx (carious teeth, sinusitis) serve as a permanent reservoir of pathogenic flora. Their timely treatment prevents downward infection of the palatine tonsils and relapses of tonsillitis.
How are primary tonsillitis (quinsy) classified according to the morphological character and depth of tonsillar involvement?
- AAcute, subacute, chronic
- BPrimary, secondary, specific
- CCatarrhal, follicular, lacunar, necrotic
- DMild, moderate, severe
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According to B.S. Preobrazhensky's classification, primary tonsillitis is divided into catarrhal, follicular, lacunar, and necrotic forms. This division reflects the sequence and depth of the inflammatory process in the lymphoid tissue of the tonsils.
Meningococcal infection
5 questionsWhat condition is characterized by the presence of meningeal syndrome against the background of fever without pathological changes in the cerebrospinal fluid?
- Apurulent meningitis
- Bmeningism
- Cserous meningitis
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Meningism is a toxic irritation of the meninges against the background of high fever and intoxication, in which meningeal signs are detected, but the composition of the cerebrospinal fluid remains normal.
Which age group accounts for up to 80% of all cases of meningococcal infection?
- Aadolescents aged 12–17 years
- Bneonates under 1 month
- Cchildren under 5 years
- Dadults over 60 years
Show answer
The highest susceptibility to meningococcus is observed in young children due to the immaturity of the immune system, which is why the age group under 5 years accounts for the vast majority of cases.
Which cytogram pattern is most typical for purulent bacterial meningitis?
- AEosinophilic profile
- BNeutrophilic profile
- CMixed profile
- DLymphocytic profile
Show answer
Purulent bacterial meningitis is characterized by pronounced pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid with a sharp predominance of neutrophils, reflecting an acute inflammatory reaction to a bacterial infection.
Which drugs are used for the localized form of meningococcal infection (nasopharyngitis)?
- ABenzylpenicillin intramuscularly in high doses
- BOral antibiotics in age-appropriate dosages
- CGlucocorticoids intravenously
- DOsmotic diuretics
Show answer
Meningococcal nasopharyngitis proceeds without systemic toxemia and damage to the cerebral membranes, therefore the administration of oral antibacterial agents is sufficient for pathogen eradication.
In what year did the WHO approve the unifying term "meningococcal infection"?
- A1806
- B1965
- C1887
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In 1965, the World Health Organization recommended using the term "meningococcal infection" to combine various clinical forms of the disease (nasopharyngitis, meningitis, meningococcemia) under a single diagnosis.
Disorders of Consciousness
5 questionsWhat indicates a primary extensive focal lesion of the cerebral hemispheres in the differential diagnosis of coma?
- ASymmetrical depression of all brainstem reflexes
- BAsymmetrical focal symptomatology with preserved brainstem reflexes
- CBilateral pupil constriction
- DFloating eye movements
Show answer
In structural damage to the hemispheres (e.g., in extensive stroke), coma is accompanied by focal neurological deficits, most often asymmetrical. Brainstem reflexes remain preserved until a dislocation syndrome develops.
Where is the ascending reticular activating system (ARAS) localized?
- AIn the spinal cord
- BIn the cerebellum
- CIn the cerebral cortex
- DIn the diencephalon and upper brainstem
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The ascending reticular activating system is a complex of neurons located predominantly in the upper parts of the brainstem (pons and midbrain) and non-specific thalamic nuclei, which maintain the level of cortical arousal.
What is included in the mandatory minimum assessment of the cardiovascular system in a patient with impaired consciousness?
- A12-lead ECG
- B24-hour blood pressure monitoring
- CEchocardiography
- DBlood pressure measurement on both arms
Show answer
Blood pressure measurement on both arms is a basic physical examination screening method that allows for the rapid suspicion of aortic dissection or subclavian steal syndrome, which may be the cause of altered consciousness.
Which skin sign suggests carbon monoxide or atropine poisoning?
- AMarked hyperhidrosis
- BJaundice
- CAshen-yellow skin color
- DCherry-pink skin hue
Show answer
Carbon monoxide poisoning leads to the formation of carboxyhemoglobin, which gives tissues a cherry-red color, while atropine causes marked dilation of skin capillaries, also resulting in skin flushing.
Which symptom in infants presents as flexion of the legs at the knee and hip joints when the child is lifted by the axillae?
- ALessaer's sign
- BBrudzinski's sign
- CNuchal rigidity
- DKernig's sign
Show answer
Lessaer's suspension sign is a specific meningeal sign for infants in their first year of life. When the meninges are irritated, the infant reflexively pulls their legs toward the abdomen and holds them in this position when lifted by the armpits.
Kidney and Urinary Tract Diseases
5 questionsHistological marker of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN):
- AFormation of "crescents" in more than 50% of renal glomeruli
- BLinear staining on immunofluorescence
- CGranular staining on immunofluorescence
- DAbsence of immune deposits in glomeruli
Show answer
The morphological substrate of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is extracapillary proliferative glomerulonephritis, in which cellular "crescents" formed by proliferating Bowman's capsule epithelium and macrophages are present in more than half of the glomeruli.
A patient with membranous nephropathy is found to have autoantibodies against the phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R). Which glomerular structure is the primary target of immune injury in the primary form?
- AParietal layer of Bowman's capsule
- BPodocytes (visceral layer of the glomerular capsule)
- CGlomerular capillary endothelium
- DMesangial cells
Show answer
The phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) is expressed on the surface of podocytes, making them the target for autoantibodies followed by the formation of subepithelial immune complexes.
A patient with a history of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis presents with a sharp deterioration in renal function and rapid progression to end-stage uremia. Which complication/outcome is most likely?
- AProgression to rapidly progressive (extracapillary) glomerulonephritis
- BDevelopment of urolithiasis
- CDevelopment of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis
- DDevelopment of minimal change nephrotic syndrome
Show answer
A rapid decline in the glomerular filtration rate with the development of renal failure over weeks or months is characteristic of extracapillary glomerulonephritis, accompanied by the formation of glomerular "crescents".
Which morphological variant belongs to non-proliferative forms of glomerulonephritis?
- AGlomerulonephritis extracapillaris
- BGlomerulonephritis endocapillaris
- CGlomerulonephritis mesangioproliferativa
- DMorbus mutationum minimarum (minimal change disease)
Show answer
Minimal change disease belongs to non-proliferative glomerulopathies, as there is no increase in the number of cells within the glomeruli. The primary pathogenetic mechanism is podocyte injury, leading to marked proteinuria without cellular proliferation.
A patient presents with clinical features of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. What type of staining pattern on immunofluorescence microscopy of the glomerular biopsy is most expected?
- AStaining limited to tubules, without glomerular involvement
- BAbsence of staining (no immune deposits)
- CGranular staining
- DLinear staining
Show answer
Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is caused by the deposition of immune complexes in the renal glomeruli. On immunofluorescence microscopy, these deposits (IgG and the C3 complement component) produce a characteristic granular staining pattern resembling a "starry sky".
Nutrition of a Healthy Child
5 questionsWhich agent is used to stimulate gastrointestinal glandular secretion before a meal?
- APlain water at room temperature
- BFruit juice
- CFermented milk drink
Show answer
Consuming a small amount of plain water at room temperature 15–20 minutes before a meal reflexively stimulates gastric juice secretion and prepares the digestive tract for food intake.
What is prohibited when preparing complementary foods for an infant according to guidelines?
- ADilution with formula
- BVegetable homogenization
- CUse of vegetable broth
- DAdditional salting of food
Show answer
It is not recommended to add salt to complementary foods for infants under one year of age, as this creates an excessive load on immature kidneys and disrupts the development of proper taste habits.
In which case is supplemental feeding given to an infant during mixed feeding?
- AInstead of one of the breastfeedings
- BAfter breastfeeding and complete emptying of the breast
- CBefore breastfeeding
Show answer
To maintain lactation during mixed feeding, the formula is always given only after the infant has emptied both breasts, in order to maximize breast milk production.
Which fish varieties are allowed for children under 3 years of age?
- AFatty marine fish varieties
- BAny varieties without restrictions
- CRiver fish only
- DLean fish (cod, hake, pike-perch)
Show answer
It is recommended to include lean fish in the diet of young children because it is easier to digest and less likely to cause allergic reactions. Fatty varieties create an excessive load on the child's immature digestive system.
In what form is meat introduced into a child's diet starting at 10 months?
- AMinced meat
- BMeatballs
- CSteamed cutlets
- DPieces of meat
Show answer
By 10 months of age, the child has teeth and chewing skills are developing, so instead of meat puree, meatballs are introduced into the diet to stimulate the chewing apparatus and gastrointestinal motility.
Infectious and parasitic diseases
5 questionsRoutine specific tetanus prophylaxis is carried out using combination vaccines, for example:
- AOPV (oral polio vaccine)
- BBCG
- CDTaP
- DMMR (measles-mumps-rubella)
Show answer
The DTaP vaccine contains adsorbed tetanus toxoid, which ensures the development of specific antitoxic immunity against tetanus.
A patient with a clinical presentation of rabies developed bulbar disorders (dysphagia, dysphonia), which is associated with damage to the cranial nerve nuclei of the medulla oblongata. Damage to which nerve most likely explains these symptoms?
- AN. facialis (cranial nerve VII)
- BN. opticus (cranial nerve II)
- CN. glossopharyngeus (cranial nerve IX)
- DN. trigeminus (cranial nerve V)
Show answer
The glossopharyngeal nerve (along with the vagus nerve) innervates the muscles of the pharynx and larynx; therefore, damage to its nuclei in the medulla oblongata leads to impaired swallowing (dysphagia) and phonation (dysphonia).
The high-risk group that serves as an indication for targeted HIV testing includes:
- AChildren receiving hemodialysis
- BChildren attending kindergarten
- CChildren with seasonal allergic rhinitis
- DChildren who have had an acute respiratory viral infection once a year
Show answer
Patients undergoing maintenance hemodialysis are exposed to frequent invasive procedures and contact with equipment and blood products. This places them in a high-risk group for bloodborne infections, including HIV.
A patient with chronic hepatitis B suddenly (3–5 days after suspected infection) developed high fever, severe intoxication, recurrent vomiting, arthralgia, followed by intense jaundice, high cytolysis, edematous-ascitic syndrome, and wave-like exacerbations. Which variant of HDV infection is most likely?
- AHepatitis B virus reinfection
- BPersistent infection without HDV superinfection
- CSuperinfection (HDV superinfection on ongoing HBV infection)
- DHBV+HDV co-infection (simultaneous infection)
Show answer
The development of acute delta infection in a patient already suffering from chronic hepatitis B or who is an HBsAg carrier is classified as a superinfection. Such a condition often occurs in severe, fulminant forms with pronounced cytolytic syndrome and rapid development of liver failure.
The spread of Varicella Zoster Virus during reactivation occurs predominantly:
- ACentrifugally along nerve fibers (neurogenic pathway)
- BEnterically via the gastrointestinal tract
- CHematogenously with the development of a generalized rash
- DLymphogenously with involvement of regional lymph nodes as the leading mechanism
Show answer
Upon reactivation, the varicella-zoster virus persisting in sensory ganglia spreads centrifugally along the axons of nerve cells to the innervated skin area, causing the clinical presentation of herpes zoster.
Frequently asked questions
Where do these pediatrics questions come from?
From the test bank of the WhiteCoat Pro «Pediatrics» course — the same one students use to prepare for classes. The entire bank contains 8,659 questions; this includes 50 questions across 10 sections with answers and brief explanations.
Are these tests suitable for colloquiums and exams?
The questions are compiled according to the medical school curriculum and cover the main sections of the subject. We do not guarantee a match with the exam questions of any specific university: use the test to identify gaps, and review weak topics using a reference book or within the course.
How to solve: look at the answers immediately or take the test first?
First, go through the practice mode — choosing an option without hints better reinforces the material. The answers and explanations under each question on the page will be useful for reviewing mistakes.
Where to get the rest of the questions?
The full pediatrics question bank with error analysis, study guides for each topic, and an AI tutor are available in the «Pediatrics» course.
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